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Question 1/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) Over long periods of time, (b) layers of sediments builds up (c) to a height of a few kilometers. (d) No Error
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) Over long periods of time, (b) layers of sediments builds up (c) to a height of a few kilometers. (d) No Error
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Question 2/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) When a gas is (b) cooled down it turns into a liquid (c) from a process called condensation. (d) No Error
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) When a gas is (b) cooled down it turns into a liquid (c) from a process called condensation. (d) No Error
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Question 3/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) If you want (b) to know the news (c) you can read a newspaper. (d) No Error
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) If you want (b) to know the news (c) you can read a newspaper. (d) No Error
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Question 4/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) Columbus made his (b) first voyage from Europe to America (c) on 1492. (d) No Error
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) Columbus made his (b) first voyage from Europe to America (c) on 1492. (d) No Error
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Question 5/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) Whenever the sky is (b) clear, you can see (c) the stars in the night. (d) No Error
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) Whenever the sky is (b) clear, you can see (c) the stars in the night. (d) No Error
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Question 6/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) I'm not working tomorrow, (b) so I don't had to (c) get up early. (d) No Error
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) I'm not working tomorrow, (b) so I don't had to (c) get up early. (d) No Error
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Question 7/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) She didn't (b) tell anybody (c) about her plans. (d) No Error
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) She didn't (b) tell anybody (c) about her plans. (d) No Error
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Question 8/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) She wouldn't have (b) has an accident, (c) if she had driven carefully. (d) No Error
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) She wouldn't have (b) has an accident, (c) if she had driven carefully. (d) No Error
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Question 9/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) I will watch film (b) if I finish the work (c) in time. (d) No Error
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) I will watch film (b) if I finish the work (c) in time. (d) No Error
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Question 10/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) In 1989, the government (b) did an about-face and Iran restored (c) it's family planning program. (d) No Error
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
(a) In 1989, the government (b) did an about-face and Iran restored (c) it's family planning program. (d) No Error
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Question 11/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
During the pandemic the indigent people had to suffer a lot.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
During the pandemic the indigent people had to suffer a lot.
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Question 12/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
She had no idea what made him angry in one minute and jovial the next.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
She had no idea what made him angry in one minute and jovial the next.
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Question 13/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
It is sheer lunacy to drive a car in this frosty weather.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
It is sheer lunacy to drive a car in this frosty weather.
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Question 14/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Operating on a child with cancer needs meticulous planning and teamwork.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Operating on a child with cancer needs meticulous planning and teamwork.
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Question 15/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The thrill of over-speeding the vehicle can be exhilarating, but it is important not to take the consequences lightly.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The thrill of over-speeding the vehicle can be exhilarating, but it is important not to take the consequences lightly.
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Question 16/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The redemption will now depend on his new strategy of inclusiveness.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The redemption will now depend on his new strategy of inclusiveness.
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Question 17/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Only three candidates are now in contention for the title.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Only three candidates are now in contention for the title.
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Question 18/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
All my fishing paraphernalia is in the car.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
All my fishing paraphernalia is in the car.
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Question 19/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The public watched in astonishment as he took a sudden jump from the bridge.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The public watched in astonishment as he took a sudden jump from the bridge.
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Question 20/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Drinking inordinate amount of liquor is not good for health.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Drinking inordinate amount of liquor is not good for health.
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Question 21/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P because I feel Q you remember it better R when you write something, S I make at least three drafts of a song
The correct sequence should be:
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P because I feel Q you remember it better R when you write something, S I make at least three drafts of a song
The correct sequence should be:
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Question 22/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P for hours in the shop Q a gunman who held R a hostage S demanded ransom of ₹10 lakh
The correct sequence should be:
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P for hours in the shop Q a gunman who held R a hostage S demanded ransom of ₹10 lakh
The correct sequence should be:
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Question 23/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P living in Russia Q country immediately R Ukraine has urged its citizens S to leave the
The correct sequence should be:
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P living in Russia Q country immediately R Ukraine has urged its citizens S to leave the
The correct sequence should be:
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Question 24/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P ripping roofs off houses and raising fears of Q coast of Madagascar in the early hours, R cyclone Emnati crashed into the southeastern S flooding and food shortages in the region
The correct sequence should be:
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P ripping roofs off houses and raising fears of Q coast of Madagascar in the early hours, R cyclone Emnati crashed into the southeastern S flooding and food shortages in the region
The correct sequence should be:
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Question 25/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P ecology is protected and aquatic life thrives Q we need to utilize the resources of water R for different purposes while S ensuring that its natural
The correct sequence should be:
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P ecology is protected and aquatic life thrives Q we need to utilize the resources of water R for different purposes while S ensuring that its natural
The correct sequence should be:
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Question 26/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P very difficult Q the poor visibility R made the movement of traffic S due to fog
The correct sequence should be:
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P very difficult Q the poor visibility R made the movement of traffic S due to fog
The correct sequence should be:
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Question 27/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P avenues for the patients to indict Q but rarely is it the other way round R there are multiple legal S the doctors
The correct sequence should be:
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P avenues for the patients to indict Q but rarely is it the other way round R there are multiple legal S the doctors
The correct sequence should be:
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Question 28/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P flight, and each person Q her own journey R life is a solo S makes his or
The correct sequence should be:
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P flight, and each person Q her own journey R life is a solo S makes his or
The correct sequence should be:
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Question 29/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P made it evolve Q technologies and equipment has R into a rare centre of excellence S adoption of the latest
The correct sequence should be:
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
P made it evolve Q technologies and equipment has R into a rare centre of excellence S adoption of the latest
The correct sequence should be:
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Question 30/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
The correct sequence should be:
(P) please mark the same /(Q) be made in response to this notice /(R) if you have any complaint to/(S) to the concerned authority
Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.
The correct sequence should be:
(P) please mark the same /(Q) be made in response to this notice /(R) if you have any complaint to/(S) to the concerned authority
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Question 31/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The parental support can fortify a child's learning.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The parental support can fortify a child's learning.
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Question 32/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Now we can have another dazzling thought, as an outcome of my brilliant research!
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Now we can have another dazzling thought, as an outcome of my brilliant research!
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Question 33/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The group held some clandestine meetings to resolve the matter.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The group held some clandestine meetings to resolve the matter.
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Question 34/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions:Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
In the winters, the countryside view is bleak and the house is drafty.
Directions:Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
In the winters, the countryside view is bleak and the house is drafty.
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Question 35/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Amid commotion the leader and his supporters remained passive.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
Amid commotion the leader and his supporters remained passive.
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Question 36/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
He had the audacity to blame him.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
He had the audacity to blame him.
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Question 37/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
They are making plans for the abatement of the nuisance within a specified time.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
They are making plans for the abatement of the nuisance within a specified time.
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Question 38/150
4 / -1.33
Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
There is exponential growth in the development of the scientific researches in the recent few decades.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.
There is exponential growth in the development of the scientific researches in the recent few decades.
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Question 39/150
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Mark Review
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
He was known for his sagacity.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
He was known for his sagacity.
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Question 40/150
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Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The river Ganges culminates in the Bay of Bengal.
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.
The river Ganges culminates in the Bay of Bengal.
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Question 41/150
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Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
The lion's share
Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
The lion's share
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Question 42/150
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Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Spill the beans
Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Spill the beans
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Question 43/150
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Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Cook someone's goose
Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Cook someone's goose
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Question 44/150
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Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Disappear into thin air
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Disappear into thin air
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Question 45/150
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Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Put the screws on
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Put the screws on
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Question 46/150
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Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Sit on the fence
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Sit on the fence
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Question 47/150
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Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Be as sharp as a tack
Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Be as sharp as a tack
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Question 48/150
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Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
From pillar to post
Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
From pillar to post
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Question 49/150
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Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Heath Robinson
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Heath Robinson
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Question 50/150
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Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
As thick as thieves
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
As thick as thieves
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Question 51/150
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Two identical spring balances S1 and S2 are connected one after the other and are held vertically as shown in the figure. A mass of 10 kg is hanging from S2. If the readings on S1 and S2 are W1 and W2 respectively, then :

Two identical spring balances S1 and S2 are connected one after the other and are held vertically as shown in the figure. A mass of 10 kg is hanging from S2. If the readings on S1 and S2 are W1 and W2 respectively, then :

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Question 52/150
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A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a 20 m high building with a speed of 12 m/s. It hits the ground at a distance R from the building. Taking g = 10 m/s2 and neglecting air resistance will give :
A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a 20 m high building with a speed of 12 m/s. It hits the ground at a distance R from the building. Taking g = 10 m/s2 and neglecting air resistance will give :
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Question 53/150
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A sphere of volume V is made of a material with lower density than water. While on Earth, it floats on water with its volume f1V (f1 < 1) submerged. On the other hand, on a spaceship accelerating with acceleration a < g (g is the acceleration due to gravity on Earth) in outer space, its submerged volume in water is f2V. Then:
A sphere of volume V is made of a material with lower density than water. While on Earth, it floats on water with its volume f1V (f1 < 1) submerged. On the other hand, on a spaceship accelerating with acceleration a < g (g is the acceleration due to gravity on Earth) in outer space, its submerged volume in water is f2V. Then:
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Question 54/150
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Two identical containers X and Y are connected at the bottom by a thin tube of negligible volume. The tube has a valve in it, as shown in the figure. Initially container X has a liquid filled up to height h in it and container Y is empty. When the valve is opened, both containers have equal amount of liquid in equilibrium. If the initial (before the valve is opened) potential energy of the liquid is P1 and the final potential energy is P2 then :

Two identical containers X and Y are connected at the bottom by a thin tube of negligible volume. The tube has a valve in it, as shown in the figure. Initially container X has a liquid filled up to height h in it and container Y is empty. When the valve is opened, both containers have equal amount of liquid in equilibrium. If the initial (before the valve is opened) potential energy of the liquid is P1 and the final potential energy is P2 then :

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Question 55/150
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A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with a constant speed v. Its average acceleration over the time when it moves over half the circle is :
A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with a constant speed v. Its average acceleration over the time when it moves over half the circle is :
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Question 56/150
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Two forces of 5⋅0 N each are acting on a point mass. If the angle between the forces is 60°, then the net force acting on the point mass has magnitude close to :
Two forces of 5⋅0 N each are acting on a point mass. If the angle between the forces is 60°, then the net force acting on the point mass has magnitude close to :
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Question 57/150
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Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?
Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?
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Question 58/150
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Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Hypocenter is the point on the surface of the Earth, nearest to the focus.
2. Velocity of earthquake waves is higher in denser materials.
3. P waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface of the Earth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Hypocenter is the point on the surface of the Earth, nearest to the focus.
2. Velocity of earthquake waves is higher in denser materials.
3. P waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface of the Earth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Question 59/150
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In terms of geological time scale, the quaternary period consists of two epochs. They are:
In terms of geological time scale, the quaternary period consists of two epochs. They are:
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Question 60/150
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Which one of the following is the correct sequence of arrangement of the given planets in descending order of their density (in gm/cm3)?
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of arrangement of the given planets in descending order of their density (in gm/cm3)?
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Question 61/150
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Which one of the following is not a cold current?
Which one of the following is not a cold current?
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Question 62/150
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The process of Podsolization is predominantly found in:
The process of Podsolization is predominantly found in:
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Question 63/150
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Joint Military exercise 'Keen Sword 23' was conducted between :
Joint Military exercise 'Keen Sword 23' was conducted between :
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Question 64/150
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The Battle of Rezang La, an epic battle in hostile conditions, was fought by the Indian Army in:
The Battle of Rezang La, an epic battle in hostile conditions, was fought by the Indian Army in:
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Question 65/150
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Consider the following statements about 'Exercise Sea Vigil-22':
1. Its aim is to assess India's preparedness in the domain of Maritime security and coastal defence.
2. Naval forces of USA and Japan also took part in the exercise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements about 'Exercise Sea Vigil-22':
1. Its aim is to assess India's preparedness in the domain of Maritime security and coastal defence.
2. Naval forces of USA and Japan also took part in the exercise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Question 66/150
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Consider the following statements:
1. England is the only country that won the ICC T20 World Cup twice.
2. Virat Kohli is the only player to be adjudged as the Player of the Series in the ICC T20 World Cup twice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements:
1. England is the only country that won the ICC T20 World Cup twice.
2. Virat Kohli is the only player to be adjudged as the Player of the Series in the ICC T20 World Cup twice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Question 67/150
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Who among the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2022?
Who among the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2022?
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Question 68/150
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Consider the following statements regarding cell wall composition :
1. Bacterial cell wall is made of peptidoglycan.
2. Fungal cell wall is made of cellulose.
3. Animals lack cell wall and have extracellular matrix made up of sugar and proteins.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Consider the following statements regarding cell wall composition :
1. Bacterial cell wall is made of peptidoglycan.
2. Fungal cell wall is made of cellulose.
3. Animals lack cell wall and have extracellular matrix made up of sugar and proteins.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Question 69/150
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Which one of the following structures is not present in a prokaryotic cell?
Which one of the following structures is not present in a prokaryotic cell?
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Question 70/150
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In a plant cell, which one of the following contains their own DNA?
In a plant cell, which one of the following contains their own DNA?
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Question 71/150
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One advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that it helps species to survive over long evolutionary time. This is because sexual reproduction produces :
One advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that it helps species to survive over long evolutionary time. This is because sexual reproduction produces :
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Question 72/150
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Which one of the following structures or components is not always present in living cells?
Which one of the following structures or components is not always present in living cells?
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Question 73/150
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Browning of the chopped apple can be minimized by :
Browning of the chopped apple can be minimized by :
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Question 74/150
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Which of the hydrocarbons are arranged as per the increasing order of their boiling points?
Which of the hydrocarbons are arranged as per the increasing order of their boiling points?
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Question 75/150
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Which one of the following apparatus is used for separating benzene and water mixture?
Which one of the following apparatus is used for separating benzene and water mixture?
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Question 76/150
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An iron nail dipped in copper sulphate solution turns brown. This is due to which one of the following types of reactions?
An iron nail dipped in copper sulphate solution turns brown. This is due to which one of the following types of reactions?
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Question 77/150
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Among the following, which is not the correct method for keeping the curd?
Among the following, which is not the correct method for keeping the curd?
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Question 78/150
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Toothpaste prevents tooth decay by:
Toothpaste prevents tooth decay by:
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Question 79/150
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Freedom fighter Kanaklata Barua was martyred in:
Freedom fighter Kanaklata Barua was martyred in:
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Question 80/150
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Which one among the following statements about the Mansabdari system is correct?
Which one among the following statements about the Mansabdari system is correct?
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Question 81/150
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Which Governor General of Bengal underwent impeachment proceedings in the British Parliament?
Which Governor General of Bengal underwent impeachment proceedings in the British Parliament?
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Question 82/150
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Who among the following composed the 'Prayag Prashasti' of Samudragupta?
Who among the following composed the 'Prayag Prashasti' of Samudragupta?
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Question 83/150
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Which one of the following kingdoms was founded by the two brothers Harihar and Bukka?
Which one of the following kingdoms was founded by the two brothers Harihar and Bukka?
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Question 84/150
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At which one of the following places did the Danes establish their settlement in India?
At which one of the following places did the Danes establish their settlement in India?
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Question 85/150
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A rectangle ABCD is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length f with its corners A and B being, respectively, at distances 2f and 3f from the mirror with AB along the principal axis as shown in the figure. It forms an image A'B'C'D' in front of the mirror. What is the ratio of B'C' to A'D'?

A rectangle ABCD is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length f with its corners A and B being, respectively, at distances 2f and 3f from the mirror with AB along the principal axis as shown in the figure. It forms an image A'B'C'D' in front of the mirror. What is the ratio of B'C' to A'D'?

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Question 86/150
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Shown in the figure are two plane mirrors XY and YZ (XY ⊥ YZ) joined at their edge. Also shown is a light ray falling on one of the mirrors and reflected back parallel to its original path as a result of this arrangement. The two mirrors are now rotated by an angle θ to their new position X'YZ', as shown. As a result the new reflected ray is at an angle α from the original reflected ray. Then :

Shown in the figure are two plane mirrors XY and YZ (XY ⊥ YZ) joined at their edge. Also shown is a light ray falling on one of the mirrors and reflected back parallel to its original path as a result of this arrangement. The two mirrors are now rotated by an angle θ to their new position X'YZ', as shown. As a result the new reflected ray is at an angle α from the original reflected ray. Then :

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Question 87/150
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A railway wagon (open at the top) of mass M1 is moving with speed v1 along a straight track. As a result of rain, after some time it gets partially filled with water so that the mass of the wagon becomes M2 and speed becomes v2. Taking the rain to be falling vertically and the water stationery inside the wagon, the relation between the two speeds v1 and v2 is :
A railway wagon (open at the top) of mass M1 is moving with speed v1 along a straight track. As a result of rain, after some time it gets partially filled with water so that the mass of the wagon becomes M2 and speed becomes v2. Taking the rain to be falling vertically and the water stationery inside the wagon, the relation between the two speeds v1 and v2 is :
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Question 88/150
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Which one of the following statements is not true for a flute, a musical instrument?
Which one of the following statements is not true for a flute, a musical instrument?
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Question 89/150
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A positive charge is moving towards south in a space where magnetic field is pointing in the north direction. The moving charge will experience :
A positive charge is moving towards south in a space where magnetic field is pointing in the north direction. The moving charge will experience :
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Question 90/150
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Which one of the following is not a main greenhouse gas?
Which one of the following is not a main greenhouse gas?
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Question 91/150
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Which one of the following statements about X-rays is not true?
Which one of the following statements about X-rays is not true?
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Question 92/150
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Which one among the following is the northernmost geographical location?
Which one among the following is the northernmost geographical location?
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Question 93/150
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Consider the following statements:
1. Distance between the longitudes becomes zero on North Pole and South Pole.
2. Distance between the longitudes is maximum on the Equator.
3. Number of longitudes is more than number of latitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements:
1. Distance between the longitudes becomes zero on North Pole and South Pole.
2. Distance between the longitudes is maximum on the Equator.
3. Number of longitudes is more than number of latitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Question 94/150
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Which one among the following states is the leading producer of Manganese in India?
Which one among the following states is the leading producer of Manganese in India?
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Question 95/150
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Mica is mainly used in:
Mica is mainly used in:
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Question 96/150
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According to Koppen's climatic classifications, the Great Northern Plains of India have which one of the following climates?
According to Koppen's climatic classifications, the Great Northern Plains of India have which one of the following climates?
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Question 97/150
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Which of the following statements about Lachit Borphukan is/are correct?
1. He was a General of the Ahom Force.
2. He is known for his leadership in the Battle of Saraighat.
3. Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal is given to the best cadet at the National Defence Academy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the following statements about Lachit Borphukan is/are correct?
1. He was a General of the Ahom Force.
2. He is known for his leadership in the Battle of Saraighat.
3. Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal is given to the best cadet at the National Defence Academy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Question 98/150
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The 4th edition of joint military exercise 'DUSTLIK' between the Indian Army and the Uzbekistan Army was held in :
The 4th edition of joint military exercise 'DUSTLIK' between the Indian Army and the Uzbekistan Army was held in :
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Question 99/150
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Which of the following is India's first privately developed rocket launched by ISRO recently?
Which of the following is India's first privately developed rocket launched by ISRO recently?
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Question 100/150
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Which one among the following villages was recently declared as India's first 24 × 7 solar-powered village?
Which one among the following villages was recently declared as India's first 24 × 7 solar-powered village?
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Question 101/150
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Tableaux of which one of the following States was adjudged the best in the Republic Day Parade, 2023?
Tableaux of which one of the following States was adjudged the best in the Republic Day Parade, 2023?
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Question 102/150
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Organisms capable of using CO2 as principal carbon source are called:
Organisms capable of using CO2 as principal carbon source are called:
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Question 103/150
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When yeast cells are O2 starved, fermentation serves as the source of energy. This results in the production of:
When yeast cells are O2 starved, fermentation serves as the source of energy. This results in the production of:
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Question 104/150
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During a laboratory experiment, a student immerses epidermal leaf peel in a hypertonic solution. After some time, the student examined the cells under a microscope and observed that:
During a laboratory experiment, a student immerses epidermal leaf peel in a hypertonic solution. After some time, the student examined the cells under a microscope and observed that:
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Question 105/150
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Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of fungi?
Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of fungi?
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Question 106/150
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Which one of the following statements about bryophytes is not correct?
Which one of the following statements about bryophytes is not correct?
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Question 107/150
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What is the specific purpose of using potassium hydroxide during the saponification process?
What is the specific purpose of using potassium hydroxide during the saponification process?
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Question 108/150
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Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity?
Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity?
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Question 109/150
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Which among the following statements is not correct with respect to allotropes of Carbon?
Which among the following statements is not correct with respect to allotropes of Carbon?
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Question 110/150
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Which among the following is the popular method for manufacture of ammonia?
Which among the following is the popular method for manufacture of ammonia?
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Question 111/150
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For manufacturing of glass, which among the following is used as a source of silica?
For manufacturing of glass, which among the following is used as a source of silica?
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Question 112/150
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Which among the following is the correct arrangement of halogens in the increasing order of their oxidizing nature?
Which among the following is the correct arrangement of halogens in the increasing order of their oxidizing nature?
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Question 113/150
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Copper sulphate crystals available in the market are blue coloured crystals. By careful heating, they turn to white colour. Which one of the following is responsible for the blue colour?
Copper sulphate crystals available in the market are blue coloured crystals. By careful heating, they turn to white colour. Which one of the following is responsible for the blue colour?
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Question 114/150
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Equal volume of all gases, when measured at the same temperature and pressure, contain an equal number of particles. Who proposed the above law?
Equal volume of all gases, when measured at the same temperature and pressure, contain an equal number of particles. Who proposed the above law?
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Question 115/150
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Airbags work on the principle of a chemical reaction triggered by the impact producing a gaseous product that causes a sudden volume change. Which one among the following chemical conversions is responsible for this?
Airbags work on the principle of a chemical reaction triggered by the impact producing a gaseous product that causes a sudden volume change. Which one among the following chemical conversions is responsible for this?
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Question 116/150
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Which one among the following districts of Eastern India held a referendum in 1947 to decide whether or not to join Pakistan?
Which one among the following districts of Eastern India held a referendum in 1947 to decide whether or not to join Pakistan?
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Question 117/150
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Which one of the following statements about Rabatak inscription is not correct?
Which one of the following statements about Rabatak inscription is not correct?
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Question 118/150
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Who among the following was author of the famous Sanskrit work 'Mrichchhakatika'?
Who among the following was author of the famous Sanskrit work 'Mrichchhakatika'?
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Question 119/150
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Yashovarman was ruler of which one of the following kingdoms?
Yashovarman was ruler of which one of the following kingdoms?
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Question 120/150
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Which one among the following rulers established Pataliputra as the capital of the Magadhan Empire?
Which one among the following rulers established Pataliputra as the capital of the Magadhan Empire?
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Question 121/150
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Which one of the following astronomers proved that the Earth and other planets revolve around the Sun?
Which one of the following astronomers proved that the Earth and other planets revolve around the Sun?
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Question 122/150
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Sand falls vertically on a conveyor belt at a work rate of 0⋅1 kg/s. In order to keep the belt moving at a uniform speed of 2 m/s, the force required to be applied on the belt is :
Sand falls vertically on a conveyor belt at a work rate of 0⋅1 kg/s. In order to keep the belt moving at a uniform speed of 2 m/s, the force required to be applied on the belt is :
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Question 123/150
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The power required to lift a mass of 8⋅0 kg up a vertical distance of 4 m in 2 s is (taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2):
The power required to lift a mass of 8⋅0 kg up a vertical distance of 4 m in 2 s is (taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2):
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Question 124/150
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One block of 2⋅0 kg mass is placed on top of another block of 3⋅0 kg mass. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is 0⋅2. The bottom block is pulled with a horizontal force F such that both the blocks move together without slipping. Taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2, the maximum value of the frictional force is :
One block of 2⋅0 kg mass is placed on top of another block of 3⋅0 kg mass. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is 0⋅2. The bottom block is pulled with a horizontal force F such that both the blocks move together without slipping. Taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2, the maximum value of the frictional force is :
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Question 125/150
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A mass is attached to a spring that hangs vertically. The extension produced in the spring is 6 cm on Earth. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is one-sixth of its value on the surface of the Earth. The extension of the spring on the Moon would be:
A mass is attached to a spring that hangs vertically. The extension produced in the spring is 6 cm on Earth. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is one-sixth of its value on the surface of the Earth. The extension of the spring on the Moon would be:
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Question 126/150
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Which one of the following is an example of Second Class Lever?
Which one of the following is an example of Second Class Lever?
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Question 127/150
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In an electric circuit, a wire of resistance 10 Ω is used. If this wire is stretched to a length double of its original value, the current in the circuit would become :
In an electric circuit, a wire of resistance 10 Ω is used. If this wire is stretched to a length double of its original value, the current in the circuit would become :
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Question 128/150
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What is the total resistance in the following circuit element?

What is the total resistance in the following circuit element?

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Question 129/150
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Which of the following scheme(s) is/are included under Bharatmala Pariyojana?
1. Develop the road connectivity to border areas
2. Development of coastal roads
3. Improvement in the efficiency of National Corridors
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the following scheme(s) is/are included under Bharatmala Pariyojana?
1. Develop the road connectivity to border areas
2. Development of coastal roads
3. Improvement in the efficiency of National Corridors
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Question 130/150
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Deendayal Port was earlier known as:
Deendayal Port was earlier known as:
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Question 131/150
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The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School of Indian Army is situated at:
The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School of Indian Army is situated at:
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Question 132/150
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In the soil-forming regime, which one of the following occurs in a region where evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation significantly?
In the soil-forming regime, which one of the following occurs in a region where evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation significantly?
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Question 133/150
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Which one of the following is found in the innermost part of the Earth?
Which one of the following is found in the innermost part of the Earth?
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Question 134/150
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Which of the following tree species is/are found on Himalayas?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Rosewood
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Which of the following tree species is/are found on Himalayas?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Rosewood
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Question 135/150
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Which one of the following is the lowermost/innermost intrusive igneous rock?
Which one of the following is the lowermost/innermost intrusive igneous rock?
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Question 136/150
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If it is 12 noon in New Delhi, what will be the time in London, UK?
If it is 12 noon in New Delhi, what will be the time in London, UK?
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Question 137/150
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Which of the following positions of Sun, Earth and Moon is/are suitable for Spring Tide?
1. SYZYGY Conjunction
2. SYZYGY Opposition
3. Quadrature
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Which of the following positions of Sun, Earth and Moon is/are suitable for Spring Tide?
1. SYZYGY Conjunction
2. SYZYGY Opposition
3. Quadrature
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Question 138/150
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Which Renaissance artist painted 'The Last Supper'?
Which Renaissance artist painted 'The Last Supper'?
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Question 139/150
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Which one of the following European explorer conquered Mexico?
Which one of the following European explorer conquered Mexico?
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Question 140/150
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Near which one of the following cities in India have large statues of Kushana rulers been discovered?
Near which one of the following cities in India have large statues of Kushana rulers been discovered?
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Question 141/150
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The Treaty of Yandabo was concluded as part of which one of the following wars?
The Treaty of Yandabo was concluded as part of which one of the following wars?
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Question 142/150
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Plan allocation in agriculture and irrigation as percentage of total plan outlay was highest in:
Plan allocation in agriculture and irrigation as percentage of total plan outlay was highest in:
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Question 143/150
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The UN COP-27 Summit relates to:
The UN COP-27 Summit relates to:
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Question 144/150
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Which one of the following tribes from India's North-East had the earliest known association with cultivation and production of tea?
Which one of the following tribes from India's North-East had the earliest known association with cultivation and production of tea?
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Question 145/150
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By which one of the following amendments, was Article 51A, relating to the Fundamental Duties, inserted into the Constitution of India?
By which one of the following amendments, was Article 51A, relating to the Fundamental Duties, inserted into the Constitution of India?
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Question 146/150
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Which one of the following statements is true?
Which one of the following statements is true?
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Question 147/150
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An electric bulb is rated as 220 V and 80 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power rating would be:
An electric bulb is rated as 220 V and 80 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power rating would be:
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Question 148/150
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In the dispersion of white light by a common glass prism, which one among the following is correct?
In the dispersion of white light by a common glass prism, which one among the following is correct?
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Question 149/150
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Which one among the following is true for the speed of sound in a given medium?
Which one among the following is true for the speed of sound in a given medium?
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Question 150/150
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Which one of the following telescopes contains only mirrors?
Which one of the following telescopes contains only mirrors?