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A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m3 in 15 min. If the tank is 40 m above the ground, and the efficiency of the pump is 30%, how much electric power is consumed by the pump?
A trolley of mass 200 kg moves with a uniform speed of 36 km/h on a frictionless track. A child of mass 20 kg runs on the trolley from one end to the other (10 m away) with a speed of 4 ms−1 relative to the trolley in a direction opposite to the its motion, and jumps out of the trolley. How much has the trolley moved from the time the child begins to run?
If a man increases his speed by 2 m/sec, his K.E. is doubled. The original speed of the man is-
The angular position of a particle (in radians), along a circle of radius 0.8 m is given by the function in time (seconds) by
The linear velocity of the particle
Which of the following is not a unit of angular displacement?
A boy is playing with a tire of radius 0.5m. He accelerates it from 5rpm to 25 rpm in 15 seconds. The linear acceleration of tire is
In an equilateral triangle of length 6 cm , three masses m1= 40g , m2= 60g and m3= 60g are located at the vertices. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis along the altitude of the triangle passing through m1 is
For a system to be in equilibrium, the net torques acting on it must balance. This is true only if the torque are taken about
The Mechanical advantage of a lever is given by-
Determine the force that must be applied to end of the class 1 lever shown below to lift the 500 lb load.
There are two blocks of mass 3 kg and 5 kg hanging from the ends of a rod of negligible mass. The rod is marked in eight equal parts as shown. At which of the points indicated should a string be attached if a rod is to remain horizontal when suspended from the string?
Four particles, each of mass M, move along a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. (Take that gravitational force between two point masses m1 and m2 separated by is The speed of each particle is
At what altitude will the acceleration due to gravity be 25% of that at the earth’s surface (given radius of earth is R)?
A planet of mass M is revolving around sun in an elliptical orbit. If dA is the area swept in a time dt, angular momentum can be expressed as
A straight rod of length L extends from x = a to x = L + a. Find the gravitational force exerted by it on a point mass m at x = 0 if the linear density of rod μ = A+ Bx2
The work done in shifting a particle of mass m from centre of earth to the surface of earth is (0m at both places are fixed)
A particle is projected upward from the surface of earth (radius = R) with a speed equal to the orbital speed of a satellite near the earth’s surface. The height to which it would rise is
Two concentric shells of uniform density of mass M1 and M2 are situated as shown in the figure. The forces experienced by a particle of mass m when placed at positions A, B and C respectively are (given OA = p, OB = q and OC = r)
If G is the universal gravitational constant and ρ is the uniform density of spherical planet.
Then shortest possible period of the planet can be
Four similar particles of mass m are orbiting in a circle of radius r is the same direction and same speed because of their mutual gravitational attractive force as shown in the figure. Speed of a particle is given by
The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, potential energy stored in it will be:
A constant torque of 100 N m turns a wheel of moment of inertia 300 kg m2 about an axis passing through its centre. Starting from rest, its angular velocity after 3 s is:
The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its own axis to the radius of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its axis is :-
An energy of 484 J is spent in increasing the speed of a flywheel from 60 rpm to 360 rpm. The moment of inertia of the flywheel is:
The angular acceleration of a body, moving along the circumference of a circle, is:
An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms−1. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : (g = 10 ms−2)
The escape velocity of a body on the earth surface is 11.2 km/s. If the same body is projected upward with velocity 22.4 km/s, the velocity of this body at infinite distance from the centre of the earth will be:
If R is the radius of the earth and g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth surface. Then the mean density of the earth will be:
Two bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at a distance R. The gravitational potential on the line joining the bodies where the gravitational field equals zero, will be (G = gravitational constant):
A satellite is orbiting just above the surface of the earth with period T. If D is the density of the earth and G is the universal constant of gravitation, the quantity
A bullet of mass M hits a block of mass M'. The transfer of energy is maximum, when
A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is
A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?
A 2 m rod of mass 1 kg rotates at an angular speed of 15 rad/s about its ends. Then K.E. is
Three rings, each of mass P and radius Q are arranged as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the arrangement about YY' axis will be
Consider the following statements
Assertion (A): The moment of inertia of a rigid body reduces to its minimum value as compared to any other parallel axis when the axis of rotation passes through its centre of mass.
Reason (R): The weight of a rigid body always acts through its centre of mass in uniform gravitational field. Of these statements :
A disc of radius b and mass m rolls down an inclined plane of vertical height h. the translational speed when it reaches the bottom of the plane will be
The kinetic energy T of a particle of mass m moving in a circle of radius r varies with the distance traced, S as T = KS2. The tangential acceleration of the particle is
Water falls from a height of 60m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? (g = 10 m/s2)
A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y-direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 m is:
A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively -
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic enegy of the particle becomes equal to 8 × 10−4 J by the end of the second revoluation after the beginning of the motion ?
From the following data, the heat of formation of Ca(OH)2(s) at 18°C is ………..kcal:
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct:
Statement(a): ΔrH° for the reaction H2O(g) → 2H(g) + O(g) is 925 kJ/mol
Statement(b): ΔrH° for the reaction OH(g) → H(g) + O(g) is 502 kJ/mol
Statement(c): Enthalpy of formation of H(g) is-–218 kJ/mol
Statement(d): Enthalpy of formation of OH(g) is 42 kJ/mol
In the following case
The pressure-volume work for an ideal gas can be calculated by using the expression The work can also be calculated from the pV– plot by using the area under the curve within the specified limits. When an ideal gas is compressed (a) reversibly or (b) irreversibly from volume Vi to Vf . choose the correct option.
During complete combustion of one mole of butane, 2658 kJ of heat is released. The thermochemical reaction for above change is ΔfU0 of formation of CH4 (g) at certain temperature is –393 kJ mol−1. The value of ΔfH0 is
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(l) from the following data:
CH3OH(I)+3/2O2(g)→CO2(g)+2H2O(l); △rHθ=−726kJmol−1
C(graphite)+O2(g)→CO2(g); △cHθ=−393kJmol−1
H2(g)+1/2O2(g)→H2O(l); △fHθ=−286kJmol−1
What will be the temperature change of 1.00 mole of CH3OH(g) if 100 J of heat is added to it under constant volume conditions?
Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are
For an endothermic reaction when ΔH represents the enthalpy of the reaction in kJ mol-1, the minimum value for the energy of activation will be
Enthalpies of formation of CO(g) , CO2 (g) , N2O (g) and N2O4 (g) are -110, - 393, 81 and 9.7 kJ mol-1. Thus, ΔrU for the reaction at 298 K is,
The equilibrium concentrations of the species in the reaction A + B ⇔ C + D are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol L-1, respectively at 300 K. ΔG0 for the reaction is (R = 2cal/mol K)
Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas?
Which of the following statements is correct?
When a reversible reaction is at equilibrium, one of its products' concentration is decreased. The equilibrium state
An acidic buffer can be prepared by making a solution of
Which of the following pairs acts as a buffer solution?
Two moles of PCl5 are heated in a closed vessel of 2 L capacity. When the equilibrium is attained, 40% of it is found to be dissociated. What is Kc in mol/dm3?
Which of the following reactions will proceed in forward direction if the volume of the container is increased?
Among the following hydroxides, the one which has the lowest value of Ksp at ordinary temperature (about 25°C) is
The solubility of M2S salt is 3.5 × 10-6. Find out the solubility product.
What is the pH of a 0.10 M solution of barium hydroxide, Ba(OH)2?
The solubility of CaF2 in pure water is 2.3 × 10-4 mol dm-3. Its solubility product will be
The solubility of Mg(OH)2 is S moles/litre. The solubility product under the same conditions is
In the reaction 2H2O (g) + 2Cl2 (g) ⇄ 4HCl (g) + O2 (g), the values of Kp and Kc are related as
If the concentration of [Ag+] = 10-5 in a solution, then the concentration of [Cl-] required for the precipitation of AgCl (Ksp = 2 ×10-12) is
Which of the following compounds is not a protonic acid?
For a sparingly soluble salt ApBq, the relationship between its solubility product (Ls) and its solubility (S) is
What is the maximum concentration of equimolar solution of ferrous sulphate and sodium sulphide, so that when mixed in equal volumes there is no precipitation of iron sulphide? [Ksp for iron sulphide = 6.3 × 10-18]
The solubility product of silver bromide is 5 x 10-13. The quantity of potassium bromide with molar mass 120 g/mol to be added to 1 litre of 0.05 M solution of silver nitrate to start the precipitation of AgBr is
For the equilibrium A ⇋ B, the variation of the rate of the forward (a) and reverse (b) reaction with time is given by
The number of H+ ions in 1 cm3 of a solution having pH = 13 is ___________.
The pH of blood does not appreciably change by a small addition of an acid or a base because blood
Consider the following reaction:
N2O4(g) ⇋ 2NO2(g); ΔH0 = +58 kJ
For each of the following cases (a, b), the direction in which the equilibrium shifts is:
(a) Temperature is decreased.
(b) Pressure is increased by adding N2 at constant T.
For the reaction
Fe2N(s) + 3/2 H2(g) ⇋ 2Fe(s) + NH3(g),
If K1 & K2 be first and second ionisation constant of H3PO4 and K1 >> K2 which is incorrect.
The first and second dissociation constants of an acid H2A are 1.0 × 10-5 and 5.0 × 10-10 respectively.
The overall dissociation constant of the acid will be:
What volume of 0.2 M NH4Cl solution should be added to 100 ml of 0.1 M NH4OH solution to produce a buffer solution of pH = 8.7 ?
Given : pKb of NH4OH = 4.7 ; log 2 = 0.3
How many gm of solid NaOH must be added to 100 ml of a buffer solution which is 0.1 M each w.r.t. Acid HA and salt Na+ A- to make the pH of solution 5.5.
Given pKa(HA) = 5 (Use antilog (0.5)= 3.16)
100 mL of 0.1 M HCl is taken in a beaker and to it 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added in steps of 2 mL and the pH is continuously measured.
Which of the following graphs correctly depicts the change in pH?
How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with pH = 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH = 2?
Which one of the following solutions has the maximum pH value?
The pH of 0.1 M NH4OH (Kb = 1.8 × 10–5 M) at 25°C is
Removal of the introns and joining of the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called _________.
During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called _________.
The coding segment of DNA is called _________.
Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon hence, the code is:
Out of 64 codons, the number of codons with GGG is:
The innate tendency of offspring to resemble their parents is called?
Monohybrid ratio is _________.
Who is regarded as the father of genetics?
Material used for conducting experiments on genetic traits by Mendel was _________.
The physical expression or appearance of a character is called as:
F2 generation is obtained by _________.
Control of gene expression takes place at the level of _________.
The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its:
The portion of DNA which contains information for an entire polypeptide is called:
DNA elements, which can switch their positions, are called _________.
The following code codes for which of the amino acids respectively?
AUG and GUG
Dihybrid cross proves the law of _________.
In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green, If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?
In a cross between a pure tall plant with green pod and a pure short plant with yellow pod. How many short plants are produced in F2 generation out of 16?
The test cross is used to determine the ________.
The genotypes of a husband and wife are IA IB and IAi. Among the blood types of their children how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
Inheritance of skin colour in human beings is an example of _______.
Which of the following is an example of co-dominance?
A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?
In Mirabilis jalapa, when two F1 pink flowered plants were crossed with each other, the F2 generation produced 40 red, 80 pink and 40 white flowering plants.
This a case of:
If a B DNA molecule is 68 Angstrom long, then how many base pairs does it contain?
DNA ligase is an important enzyme that takes part in DNA replication. Which of the following roles does it play?
What was the contribution made by Chargaff in proposition of double helical model of DNA by Watson and Crick?
Which of the following linkages help(s) in the formation of base pairs in DNA molecule?
Histones are proteins which are involved in the formation of nucleosomes in the cell.
They are rich in
In a cell, the process of transcription takes place in
In which of the following gene sequences would a mutation invariably influence the binding of RNA polymerase to DNA?
Which of the following pairs of amino acids is coded by the maximum number of codons?
Wobble hypothesis was given by:
Which of the following arms of tRNA does not consist of a loop?
The ultimate source of allelic variation is:
Which of the following is a recessive trait for a character chosen by Mendel in garden pea?
When an inducer is absent in Lac operon, then the repressor protein binds to
A strand of DNA has the sequence 5′−ATTCCG−3′. The complementary strand for this is
Which of the following is an initiation codon?
AUG codes for
In the lac operon model, lactose molecules function as
The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth
Which of the following base pairs in DNA are correct?
Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s) of genes?
Which of the following factors influence the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
i. Gene migration
ii. Genetic drift
iii. Mutation
iv. Reproduction
v. Genetic recombination
Which of the following is the example of adaptive radiation?
Picture shown below is example of:-
Statement I: When more than one adaptive radiation appeared in isolated geographical area it called a convergent evolution.
Statement II: Bats and birds are example of adaptive radiation.
Statement III: Tiger cat, kangaroo, wombat and sugar gliders are example of Australian marsupials.
Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races during?
Human settlement started around 10, 000 years ago due to starting of
Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by
Pre-historic man who gave proper burial to the dead for the first time was
Assertion: Among primates Chimpanzee is closet relative to the present day humans.
Reason: The banding pattern of autosomes 3 and 6 of humans and Chimpanzee is remarkably similar.
Arrange the following species of human according to their evolution.
a. Homo habilis
b. Homo sapiens
c. Homo erectus
Evolution of modern man is most interesting and appears parallel evolution of
An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of
Assertion: The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
Reason: The first autotrophic organisms were the chemo-autotrophs that never released oxygen.
According to Neo-Darwinism, natural selection operates through_______.
Vermiform appendix in man, nictitating membrane and wisdom teeth are ______.
Which of the following is not an example of placental mammals?
The age of rock is calculated on the basis of ______.
What's the difference between natural selection and sexual selection?
Palaentological evidences for evolution refer to the:
Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era characterized by?
Organic compounds first evolved in earth required for origin of life were_____.
Adaptive radiation does not confirm _______
Which of the following bird will be called most successfully evolved?
By studying analogous structures we look for ______.
The earliest genus of humans which inhabited the Earth was
De Vries stated saltation as a view of evolution. According to him, saltation is
Formation of new species due to drastic change in allele frequency is called which of the following?
After industrialisation in 1920, there were more dark colored moths in England because
Information on geological period in which an organism existed can be gathered from which of the following?
Which of the following pairs of organisms exhibits the same similarities as flippers of penguins and dolphins?
Hardy-Weinberg principle describes the stability of allele frequency and its constancy in a
Which of the following is explained in Lamarckism?
Which of the following were probably the first mammals on the Earth?
S. L. Miller, an American scientist, synthesised which of the following in a closed flask containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800 degree Celsius?
Louis Pasteur used which of the following substances as growth medium(s) while conducting experiment to disprove abiogenesis?
Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life?
The cranial capacity was largest in
Which of the following phenomena supports Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
The two important postulates of Darwin's theory are
The Hardy-Weinberg principle explains:
Which of the following is a vestigial organ in humans?
Potato and sweet potato
Forelimbs of frog, lizard, bird and man have some evolutionary relationship. These are
The process of origination of life on Earth was experimentally shown by
The wings of an insect and a bird are examples of