Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Arms Act of 1878 reflected racial discrimination in British colonial policy.

Statement II: The Act required Indians to obtain a license to possess arms and treated violations as criminal offences.

Statement III: Europeans and Anglo-Indians were exempted from the operation of the Act.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Which of the following structures are located within the Red Fort complex?

I. Diwan-i-Aam

II. Diwan-i-Khas

III. Moti Masjid

IV. Buland Darwaza

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Councils Act of 1892:

I. It represented the only major constitutional concession granted to the Moderates between 1885 and 1905.

II. It fulfilled the Moderate demand for full responsible government.

III. It led to introduction of indirect elections in India. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

The concept of Pancha-Bheda associated with Madhvacharya refers to:

With reference to the political approach of the Moderates, consider the following statements:

I. Their faith in British justice was both a strategic choice and an ideological position.

II. Their methods reflected acceptance of constitutional agitation within the colonial framework.

III. Their demand for self-government implied immediate severance from the British Empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following cultural elements :

I. Simha Yali figure on the bow

II. Harappan-style stone anchor on deck

III. Use of synthetic polymer sails for durability

How many of the elements given above are associated with INSV Kaundinya? 

Consider the following statements:

I. The British Government initially maintained cordial relations with the Congress.

II. Increasing nationalist demands led the British Government to adopt a less friendly attitude towards Congress.

III. The British response included encouraging sections of society to distance themselves from the Congress.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Which one of the following best explains why the Home Rule Movement marked a transition phase in Indian nationalism?

It is a brass wind instrument traditionally used in military drills, ceremonial parades, and regimental bands across India. Its craftsmanship is associated with a long-standing instrument-making tradition dating back to the late nineteenth century during the colonial period. Recently, it has been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag recognising the regional craft heritage associated with its production.

Which one of the following is it?

With reference to the protection of minorities in the Cripps Proposals, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Cripps Mission emphasized safeguards for minorities in the future constitutional framework.

Statement II: The inclusion of minority safeguards ensured acceptance of the proposals by the Muslim League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Recently, which of the following Indian cities was declared a Creative City of Gastronomy under the UNESCO Creative Cities Network for its rich Awadhi culinary heritage?

During restoration works at a temple in Tamil Nadu, archaeologists unearthed over a hundred small gold coins bearing the boar (Varaha) emblem, a symbol associated with royal authority in medieval South India. The coins are believed to date between the 14th and 16th centuries CE and may have been temple endowments or donations. .

These coins are most likely associated with which one of the following empires?

With reference to Vande Mataram, consider the following statements:

I. It was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and first appeared in the novel Anandamath.

II. It was first sung publicly at the 1896 session of the Indian National Congress by Rabindranath Tagore.

III. The Constituent Assembly of India recognized it as having equal honour with the National Anthem.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Birsa Munda, whose legacy is commemorated during Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh 2025, is historically associated with which of the following tribal uprisings?

With reference to recent developments related to the Santhali language, consider the following statements:

I. The Constitution of India was translated into Santhali using the Ol Chiki script in 2025.

II. The initiative was aimed at improving democratic accessibility for Santhali-speaking citizens.

III. Santhali remains the only tribal language included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

He was born as Tyag Mal in 1621 and later earned the title “Brave of the Sword” after displaying exceptional courage in battle. He became the ninth spiritual leader of the Sikh community and travelled widely to spread the teachings of Guru Nanak. Remembered for defending the freedom of conscience, he was executed in 1675 in Delhi after refusing to convert under the orders of a Mughal emperor.

Which one of the following personalities is described above?

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Affirmative action policies in India were introduced only after judicial interventions in the late twentieth century.

Statement II: The provisions enabling reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are derived from the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following statements regarding the National Legal Services Authority:

I. It organizes Lok Adalats for the settlement of disputes through compromise.

II. It operates under the Ministry of Law and Justice as an executive department.

III. The Chief Justice of India serves as the Patron-in-Chief of the authority.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to Thwaites Glacier, consider the following statements:

I. It is an Outflow Glacier draining ice from the East Antarctic Ice Sheet.

II. It flows into the Amundsen Sea which is part of the Southern Ocean.

III. It is often called the Doomsday Glacier.

IV.  It is currently the largest glacier in the world by area. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements with regard to earthquake waves:

I. P-waves are primary waves that can pass through solids, liquids, and gases.

II. S-waves are secondary waves that can travel only through solids materials.

III. Love waves are the most destructive body waves.

IV. The shadow zone for S-waves is smaller than that of P-waves.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following statements regarding depositional and erosional landforms:

I. Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters generally broad at their bases and taper towards the free ends.

II. Stalagmites rise from the floor of caves form due to dripping water from the surface.

III. The stalagmite and stalactites eventually fuse to give rise to columns and pillars.

IV. Cirques are mainly depositional landforms formed by accumulation of glacial sediments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

With reference to Land and Sea Breezes, consider the following statements:

I. During the day, the land heats up faster than the sea creating a pressure gradient from sea to land causing sea breeze.

II. During the night, the land cools faster than the sea creating a pressure gradient from land to sea causing land breeze.

Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?

Consider the following information about minor relief features of the ocean floor:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

With reference to the Polar Vortex, consider the following statements:

I. It is a large area of high pressure and cold air that swirls around both of the Earth’s polar regions.

II. It is a counterclockwise flow of air in the Northern Hemisphere that is associated with Rossby waves.

II. The stratospheric polar vortex disappears during the summer.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to coal in India, consider the following statements:

I. India has the third-largest coal reserves and is the second largest consumer of coal globally.

II. Indian coal has a low sulphur content.

III. Odisha has the largest coal reserves in India.

IV. Gondwana coal accounts for the largest portion of India’s coal reserves and production.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Arrange the following hills of Peninsular India in the correct sequence of their location from South to North:

I. Nallamala

II. Kudremukh

III. Anaimudi

IV. Shevaroy

V. Doda Betta

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following rivers:

I. Lhasa 

II. Subansiri

III. Kameng

IV. Teesta

V. Lohit 

VI. Dhanashri 

How many of the above are left bank tributaries of the Brahmaputra?

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Satpura Range forms the northernmost boundary of the Deccan Plateau.

Statement II: The Satpura Range is a classic example of relict mountains.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following factors:

I. Socio-economic backwardness

II. Rapid population growth

III. Natural disaster

IV. Political Turmoil

V. Better job opportunities

VI. Security of life

How many of the above are push factors of migration?

Consider the following lakes of India:

I. Sambhar 

II. Wular 

III. Lonar 

IV. Chilika

V. Loktak 

How many of the above are freshwater lakes?

The Dulhasti Stage-II Hydropower Project recently approved by a panel under the Ministry of Environment is located on which river?

With reference to Glucagon-Like Peptide-1 (GLP-1) drugs , consider the following statements:

I. GLP-1 is an incretin hormone released by enteroendocrine cells.

II. They mimic the GLP-1 hormone that is naturally released in the gastrointestinal tract.

III. They act by increasing glucagon release from the pancreas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the Mpemba effect, consider the following statements:

I. The Mpemba effect refers to a phenomenon in which a hot water can freeze faster than cold water under certain conditions.

II. This effect is observed only in water and not in other substances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to Thorium, consider the following statements:

I. It is a naturally occurring radioactive element found in the Earth’s crust.

II. It is fissile but not fertile in nature.

III. When Thorium absorbs neutrons it converts into Uranium-233.

IV. Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) are well suited for using Thorium as nuclear fuel.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following:

I. Toothed Whales

II. Bats

III. Dolphins

IV. Dogs

V. Elephants

How many of the above animals use ultrasound waves for echolocation or communication?

With reference to W Ursae Majoris (W UMa) stars, consider the following statements:

I. They are short-period, dumbbell-shaped binaries in which the two stars are in contact.

II. They share a single outer atmosphere and orbit around each other.

III. These stars act as natural laboratories.

How many of the above statements are correct?

With reference to the Pralay missile, consider the following statements:

I. It is a Long-range surface-to-surface cruise missile developed by DRDO.

II. It is a solid-propellant, quasi-ballistic missile with advanced guidance and navigation systems.

III. It acts as an interceptor missile. 

How many of the above statements are correct?

With reference to Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG), consider the following statements:

I. LPG is a non-renewable source of energy extracted from crude oil and natural gas.

II. The main components of LPG are methane and ethane.

III. LPG is non-corrosive but can dissolve lubricants.

IV. LPG is normally stored in gas form under pressure in steel containers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to Air Defense Systems, consider the following:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

With reference to the Research, Development, and Innovation (RDI) Scheme, consider the following statements:

I. The RDI Scheme has a corpus of ₹1 lakh crore aims to catalyze private sector participation in high-impact R&D.

II. The Department of Science and Technology (DST) serves as the nodal department for implementing the scheme.

III. The scheme provides grants and short-term loans to technology entities for R&D projects.

IV. The Special Purpose Fund (SPF) under Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) serves as the first-level custodian for the scheme.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Graphene is seen as a promising material for transparent touch panels. 

Statement II: Graphene is an almost completely transparent material that also exhibits excellent electrical conductivity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following:

I. Chinchilla

II. Mistral 7B

III. AlphaFold

IV. Claude AI

V. YOLO

How many of the above are examples of Large Language Models (LLMs)?

The term ‘ghost particles,’ occasionally seen in the news, refers to: 

A proposed National Judicial Policy seeks to balance judicial harmony with constitutional independence. In this context, which of the following principles must be preserved?

I. Independence of the judiciary from the executive.

II. Constitutional powers of High Courts under Articles 225 and 226.

III. Federal diversity of legal and administrative practices across states.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Which of the following functions are performed by High Courts in relation to the subordinate judiciary?

I. Inspection and supervision of subordinate courts.

II. Posting and promotion of judicial officers.

III. Management of court infrastructure and financial allocations.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

With reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) in India, consider the following statements:

I. It is a set of legally binding rules enacted by Parliament to regulate election campaigning.

II. It is issued and enforced by the Election Commission of India to regulate the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections.

III. Its primary objective is to ensure a level playing field among political parties during elections.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

The India AI Governance Guidelines, recently in the news, were drafted by which of the following authorities?

Which of the following principles distinguishes Universal Basic Income from conventional welfare programmes?

I. Universality of coverage.

II. Absence of eligibility conditions.

III. Dependence on targeted subsidies for selected groups.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Which of the following developments institutionalised the federal recruitment structure for civil services in India?

Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules 2025, which of the following compliance requirements apply specifically to Significant Data Fiduciaries?

I. Independent data protection audits

II. Data Protection Impact Assessments

III. Technology due diligence requirements

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Which of the following best explains the current administrative arrangement of Chandigarh?

With reference to the appointments made in the  Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:

I. As per Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), initiation of proposal for appointment of Judges in the Supreme Court vests with the Chief Justice of India. . .

II. The appointment is formally made by the President of India under Article 124.

III. The seniority principle for appointment of the CJI is explicitly mandated in the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Which of the following statements correctly describes the constitutional options available to a Governor when a Bill is presented under Article 200?

With reference to the core services provided under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS), consider the following:

I. Supplementary nutrition

II. Pre-school education

III. Health check-ups

IV. Immunisation

V. Social communication

VI. Nutrition and health education

How many of the above are explicitly listed as the core services provided under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)?

Which one of the following institutions is responsible for the development and operation of the e‑Jagriti Platform?

It is one of the oldest parliamentary financial committees in India. Originally constituted in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919, the committee currently consists of members from both Houses of Parliament elected annually through proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Its primary responsibility is to scrutinize government expenditure based on audit reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

The above description refers to which of the following?

With reference to the phenomenon of “Black Rain”, recently seen in Tehran, consider the following statements:

I. It is a rare atmospheric phenomenon in which rain appears dark due to suspended particles such as soot, ash, dust or oil droplets.

II. It is chemically identical to acid rain. III. It can occur after oil fires, refinery explosions, wildfires or volcanic eruptions but not necessarily from nuclear fallout.

How many of the above statements are correct?

With reference to the Dusky Eagle Owl, consider the following statements:

I. The dusky eagle owl belongs to the Strigidae family.

II. It is a large greyish-brown owl with prominent ear tufts.

III. It is a powerful bird often active by day in cloudy weather.

IV. It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.

How many of the above statements are correct?

With reference to dark oxygen, consider the following statements:

I. Dark oxygen is produced in the deep ocean throughphotosynthesis. 

II. Its production in the Clarion-Clipperton Zone is linked to electric charges on polymetallic nodules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the Raisina Dialogue , consider the following statements:

I. Raisina Dialogue is India’s premier conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics held annually in New Delhi since 2016.

II. It is organized by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in collaboration with the Ministry of Home Affairs. 

III. The theme of Raisina Dialogue 2026 was Saṁskāra – Assertion, Accommodation, Advancement.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Wetlands are called the “kidneys of the Earth.”

Statement II: Wetlands recycle nutrients such as Nitrogen and Phosphorus.

Statement III: Wetlands sequester huge amounts of carbon.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

Consider the following nutrient cycles:

I. Sulphur cycle

II. Nitrogen cycle

III. Water cycle

IV. Carbon cycle

V. Phosphorus cycle

Which of the above are sedimentary biogeochemical cycle? 

With reference to the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), consider the following statements:

I. It was notified under the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022.

II. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) acts as the nodal implementing agency.

III. The scheme features both compliance mechanism and offset mechanism.

IV. It issues Carbon Credit Certificates (CCC) with each certificate representing a reduction of one tonne of CO₂ equivalent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

With reference to the Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ), consider the following statements:

I. The TTZ covers an area of 10,400 sq km around the Taj Mahal to protect it from pollution.

II. It includes three World Heritage Sites viz. Taj Mahal, Agra Fort and Fatehpur Sikri.

III. The TTZ Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority was created under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

How many of the above statements are correct?

With reference to bio-bitumen, consider the following statements:

I. India has become the first country to commercially produce bio-bitumen.

II. Bio-bitumen is bio-based binder derived from renewable sources..

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the coral larvae cryobank, consider the following statements:

I. The cryobank preserves coral larvae at extremely low temperatures to protect coral genetic diversity.

II. Indonesia has launched Southeast Asia’s first coral larvae cryobank.

III. The initiative is part of a regional collaboration across countries in the Coral Triangle. 

Which of the statements given above are correct

With reference to Red Sanders, consider the following statements:

I. Red Sanders is an endemic tree species confined to the Western Ghats.

II. It is classified as Endangered by the IUCN.

III. It is listed in CITES Appendix II and Schedule III of India’s Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

How many of the above statements are correct?

With reference to opium cultivation in India, consider the following statements:

I. Opium production became a government-controlled monopoly during the British period.

II. After Independence, the regulation of opium cultivation came under the State Governments.

III. India is the only country producing licit opium gum for pharmaceutical purposes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the Balance of Trade, consider the following statements:

I. It records transactions related only to exports and imports of goods.

II. A trade deficit does not necessarily indicate a poor economy. 

III. A surplus in the balance of trade occurs when the value of exports exceeds the value of imports.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: India is experiencing a structural crisis in the labour market characterized by "Jobless Growth."

Statement II: The manufacturing sector in India exhibits high employment elasticity but still fails to create adequate formal jobs.

Statement III: The services sector contributes more than 50% to India’s GDP but accounts for less than 30% of total employment.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A situation has emerged where thousands of highly qualified applicants compete for a limited number of low-skill government jobs such as sanitation workers or peons. This reflects a mismatch between educational attainment and labour market demand.

The phenomenon described above is best associated with which of the following?

Consider the following statements regarding fiscal transfers in India:

I. The Finance Commission determines both vertical and horizontal distribution of tax revenues.

II. Cesses and surcharges are included in the divisible pool of taxes shared with States.

III. The 15th Finance Commission recommended that States receive 41% of the divisible pool of central taxes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A maritime zone extending up to 200 nautical miles from a coastal state allows the country sovereign rights for exploring, exploiting, conserving, and managing natural resources, including fisheries. The maritime zone described above is known as:

With reference to the Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFCs) in India, consider the following statements:

I. The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor connects Ludhiana to Dankuni, while the Western Dedicated Freight Corridor connects Dadri to Jawaharlal Nehru Port.

II. The Western DFC is primarily funded by the World Bank, while the Eastern DFC is funded by the Japan International Cooperation Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding India's energy security:

I. India depends on LNG imports to meet about half of its daily natural gas requirement, with Qatar being the largest supplier.

II. Over 80% of India's LPG imports are sourced via the Strait of Hormuz, making it a critical energy chokepoint.

III. The South Pars gas field, the world's largest, is shared between Iran and Qatar and is located offshore in the Persian Gulf.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding India's refinery infrastructure:

I. India has the world's largest single-location refining complex at Jamnagar, Gujarat.

II. The Jamnagar refinery has a Nelson complexity index of 21.1, which is the highest in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Consider the following components:

I. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)

II. Gold reserves

III. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)

IV. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

How many of the above  components form part of India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves?

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Consider the following statements regarding the Board of Peace:

I. It originated from the U.S. President as part of second phase of a 20-point peace plan for Gaza.

II. It focuses on demilitarisation, technocratic governance and reconstruction of Gaza.

III. It was endorsed by the United Nations Security Council through Resolution 2803.

IV. All permanent members of the UN Security Council are part of the Board.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Kimberley Process:

I. It was initiated in year 2000 by countries of southern Africa to curb the trade in conflict diamonds. 

II. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme mandates that only certified participants can trade rough diamonds with each other.

III. The Kimberley Process represents 86 countries and accounts for approximately 99.8% of global rough diamond production.

IV. Botswana has assumed the chair of the Kimberley Process for the year 2026. 

How many of the above statements are correct?

The International Climate Initiative (IKI), recently seen in the news, is best described as:

Consider the following countries:

I. Syria

II. Israel

III. Jordan

IV. Cyprus

How many of the above countries share their land borders with Lebanon?

With reference to the Anti-Coercion Instrument (ACI), consider the following statements:

I. It was formally adopted by the European Union in 2023.

II. It allows the EU to impose countermeasures such as tariffs, investment restrictions and limits on services.

III. It operates under the Common Foreign and Security Policy (CFSP) requiring unanimity among member states.

IV. Its primary objective is deterrence rather than frequent use of retaliatory measures.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Which of the following are Member-States of the Eurasian Economic Union?

I. France

II. Kazakhstan

III. Germany

IV. Russia 

V. Armenia

VI. Belarus

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

With reference to the BRICS, consider the following statements:

I. India assumes the BRICS rotational presidency in 2026.

II. BRICS currently consists of 10 member countries including Saudi Arabia, Egypt, UAE, Ethiopia, Indonesia and Iran.

III. The BRICS countries account for nearly half of the world’s population and around 40% of global GDP.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

The “K Visa,” which has been in recent news, introduced by which country?

With reference to the Universal Postal Union (UPU), which of the following statements are

correct?

I. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations and serves as a forum for international postal cooperation.

II. It was established by the Treaty of Bern in 1874 and India has been a member of the UPU since 1947.

III. Any non-member country of the United Nations may become a UPU member.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following statements: 

Statement I: In the 20th century, India faced severe and widespread poverty under British colonial rule.

Statement II: Between 1901 and 1941, the percentage of population dependent on agriculture increased from around 63 per cent to 70 per cent.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Agriculture and allied activities is the major source of anthropogenic methane emissions in the world.

Statement II: In Agriculture and allied activities, the largest source of emissions is from the cultivation of rice, which contributes 76% of methane emissions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Which one of the following Tiger Reserves is located in the northern Western Ghats?

Consider the following Elements:

I. Uranium 

II. Zirconium 

III. Titanium 

IV. Tantalium

V. Thorium

VI. Beryllium 

How many of the above elements are declassified as atomic mineral in Mines and Mineral Act 2023?

With reference to the Financial Stability Board (FSB), consider the following statements:

I. It is an international body, established by the G20, to monitor and make recommendations to strengthen global financial stability.

II. Its decisions are legally binding on the member countries.

III. India is an active member of the board, represented by secretary of department of economic affairs, Deputy Governor of RBI and Chairman of SEBI.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements:

I.  UNESCO designated the Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve as the 13th Biosphere Reserve in India.

II. Cold Desert Biosphere reserve covers the Pin Valley National Park and the Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary.

III. Sunderban Biosphere Reserve is the first biosphere reserve of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Circular Economy refers to an industrial system that is restorative or regenerative in nature.

Statement II: Development of Greenfield projects are restorative and regenerative in nature and promotes circular economy in the industry.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?