What is the code for the word ‘mobile’?

In the given code language, what does the code U&1 represents?

Which of the following word will have the same code as the word ‘the’ as per the given code language?

What does the code E#2 represents in the code language?

What is the score of the person who is sitting to the immediate left of N?

Who is sitting second to the left of O?

What is the sum of the scores of the immediate neighbours of O?

What is the score of the person who is sitting second to the right of M?

Who is sitting third to the right of the person who scored 66 marks?

Given below is a passage followed by a question. Select the option that best answers the question.

The sugarcane farmers in country A have witnessed a bumper harvest of the crop in the previous year. Despite the booming produce, statistics show a sharp rise in suicides among sugarcane farmers.

Which of the following explains the rise in suicides among sugarcane farmers in country A?

Brown colour is filled in which box?

Which colour box has a tag- T?

Which Tag does Pink colour box have?

How many boxes are there between Brown colour box and Blue colour box?

Which of the following condition is true?

What is the code for the word ‘always’ in the given code language?

Which of the following is correct with respect to the word/s thus formed?

If P cannot be placed on the right (not necessarily immediate right) of S, which of the following combinations can be formed based on the given conditions?

How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘61842537’, each of which has as many digits between them in the number (both in forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the Numeric Series?

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Find the one that doesn’t belong to that group.

Who among the following person was born just after the one who gets 12 toffees?

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to the final arrangement?

I). Three persons were born before the one who gets 21 toffees.

II). The one who gets 12 toffees was born two persons after H.

III). Two persons were born between F and the one who gets 14 toffees. 

Read the given statement and with that information answer the following question carefully.

After GST and demonetisation, rising interest rates are set to hurt SMEs. Interest rates for loans against property (LAP) extended to small and medium sized enterprises (SMEs) are set to rise in the coming months of 2018 ‘ Rising interest rates, in addition to the muted operating environment for small businesses in India, will lead to an increase in delinquencies on LAP extended to SMEs’. The introduction of the goods and services tax (GST) in July 2017 and the government's demonetization policy have placed stress on the SME sector, which rising interest rates will exacerbate.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the statement above?

Read the given statement and with that information answer the following question carefully.

The government has held internal preliminary discussions over a possible infusion of fresh capital in debt-laden IDBI by Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) but no decision has been taken on selling its stake in the bank to the insurer, said a senior official. LIC would use that amount to capitalize the bank to maintain its capital adequacy ratio. It would not be a stake sale by government. The government is expected to hold discussions with banking, insurance and market regulators before taking a final call.

Which of the following can be logically deduced from the statement above?

“Lok Sabha passed the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill in 2017. The amendments were targeted towards bringing changes in the transport sector to encourage safer driving practices among Indian motor vehicle drivers. The amendment’s draft was put forward in the lower house of the Parliament to impose rigid fines for the traffic rules violation and to promote e-governance.”

Assumptions:

I). Now people would be more careful before riding their two-wheelers without a helmet and while driving their cars without wearing seatbelts or without valid motor insurance.

II). Contractors will be held responsible and blacklisted for the bad condition of roads.

III). The previous governments have not taken enough measures for road safety.

Statement: The court asked the Petroleum and Safety Explosives Organization (PESO) to review the clinical composition of fireworks, particularly with respect to reducing aluminium content, and submit a report on this within two weeks.

Assumptions:

I). The court put the onus on the Centre, state governments, schools and colleges to take up public awareness campaigns informing the public about the harmful effects of firecrackers.

II). Firecrackers alone could not be held as the reason for pollution during Diwali and an entire industry should not be shut down as a consequence. They contended that other factors such as vehicular pollution, construction dust and crop stubble burning also contribute to a great measure to the pollution in Delhi.

Statement : Forester -- The recent claims that the White rhino is not extinct are false. The White rhino’s natural habitat was taken over by deforestation, resulting in the animal’s systematic elimination from the area. Since then naturalists working in the region have discovered no hard evidence of its survival, such as carcasses or tracks. In spite of alleged sightings of the animal, the White rhino no longer exists.

Which one of the following is the conclusion on which the forester’s statement depends?

What is the prize amount of the person who sits immediate left of X?

Who among the following person sits second to the right of K?

The number of persons sits between Z and D is same as ­­­­_____.

What is the sum of the prize amounts of the person who sits immediate left of R and the person who sits at the extreme right end?

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to the final arrangement?

I). V’s prize amount is more than P’s prize amount

II). Only two persons sit between V and D

III). X sits immediate right of Z

If X&TH, then what is the direction of X with respect to L?

What is the approximate shortest distance between S and H?

How P is related to the one who was promoted in 1987?

Who among the following person was promoted in 1996?

Which of the following statement is/are not true?

Which of the following statement is not true with respect to S?

I). R’s sister was promoted just before S.

II). S is the mother-in-law of V.

III). One person was promoted after S.

How the one who was promoted in 1984 is related to R?

If all the letters in the given words are replaced by the fourth succeeding letter, then all the letters are arranged in reverse alphabetical order from the left end and then the place value (as per alphabetical series) of the even positioned letters of each word (from the right end) is added. Then which of the following resultant gives the second highest value?

I). COMPLICATED

II). GERMINATION

III). AGRICULTURE

If one is added to the even digit of each number and two is subtracted from the odd digit of each number, then all the digits are added within the number. Then the resultant of which of the following number is the second lowest?

I). 3985478256

II). 5293678524

III). 2964736528

If in the given words, the odd positioned letters from the left end are replaced by the second succeeding letter and the remaining letters are replaced by the third preceding letter as per the English alphabetical series, then all the letters are arranged in alphabetical order from the right end. Then which of the following word has the maximum number of letters between the letters which is third from both the ends in the given words (as per the English alphabetical series)? (Consider the previous letter of A as Z)

I). MEDITATION

II). JOURNALIST

III). HYDROMETER

Which of the following element is second to the left of “Next” in step III of the given input?

In which of the following step, the elements “Next Fancy 62 Rose 65” obtained in the same order?

Which of the following element is sixth from the left in step III of the given input?

What is the sum of the numbers between the elements “Mango” and “Rose” in step III of the given input?

How many numbers are there between the elements “Next” and “Rose” in step IV of the given input?

Six persons- P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting around a circular table facing the center but not necessarily in the same order. Who sits second to the right of S?

Statement I: Q sits third to the left of P. T sits immediate left of Q. S sits opposite to T and is not an immediate neighbor of R.

Statement II: U sits immediate left of S. Only two persons sit between U and R

Six persons- A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in a linear row facing the north direction but not necessarily in the same order. How many persons sit between A and D?

Statement I: A sits second to the left of F who sits third to the right of C. No one sits between B and D who sits to the right of F.

Statement II: A sits immediate right of C. F sits second to the left of B. Only two persons sit between B and E who sits second to the right of C. C sits to the left of F.

What is the code for “Cello Guitar Violin” in the given code language?

Statement I: In a code language, “Flute Violin Drum Harp” is coded as “sh vx lm iq”, “Violin Guitar Drum Banjo” is coded as “ vx zs lm zy”, “Guitar Violin Flute Cello” is coded as “zs vx sh mp”.

Statement II: In a code language, “Guitar Tabla Tuba Basson” is coded as “zs lg pt mt”, “Tabla Violin Tuba Recorder” is coded as “lg vx pt im”, “Violin Tabla Sitar Cello” is coded as “vx lg um vs”

Seven persons-A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are attending the meeting on different days of the week starting from Monday to Sunday but not necessarily in the same order. Which of the day does E attend the meeting?

Statement I: G attends three days after F. Only one person attends between F and E. A attends immediately before E.

Statement II: B attends immediately before D. B attends after E. C attends before F but not after E.

In the given words, each consonant is changed to the immediate next letter and each vowel is changed to the immediate previous letter as per the English alphabetical series, then all the letters are arranged in reverse alphabetical order within the words, then what is the place value (as per the alphabetical series) of the third letter of the fourth word from the right end? (consider the previous letter of A is Z)

If all the letters are arranged in alphabetical order within the words and then all the words are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, then how many letters are there as per the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the third word from the right end and third letter of the fourth word from the left end?

If the first and fourth letters in each word are changed to the immediate previous letter and the second and third letters in each word are changed to the third next letter as per the English alphabetical series, then which of the following letter repeated more than twice?

If the first and the third letters in each word are interchanged and the second and fourth letters in each word are interchanged within the words, then how many words thus formed will be meaningful?

Statement:

The students who are bright since the childhood are trained so that they choose to go out of the country for jobs after studies taking all our intelligent brains outside

Course of Action:

I). Students should be asked to sign a letter of consent with the college that they would be taking up a job in their own country

II).The students who are willing to go out should be given more support as they take the country’s name to the world

Statements: 

A). Indian team lost the crucial tournament

B). The team must train more players for the crisis times

C). Two of its important players were injured during that time

Which of the given options is correct?

 Forester -- The recent claims that the White rhino is not extinct are false. The White rhino’s natural habitat was taken over by deforestation, resulting in the animal’s systematic elimination from the area. Since then naturalists working in the region have discovered no hard evidence of its survival, such as carcasses or tracks. In spite of alleged sightings of the animal, the White rhino no longer exists.

Which one of the following is the conclusion on which the forester’s statement depends?

Statement:

“Lok Sabha passed the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill in 2017. The amendments were targeted towards bringing changes in the transport sector to encourage safer driving practices among Indian motor vehicle drivers. The amendment’s draft was put forward in the lower house of the Parliament to impose rigid fines for the traffic rules violation and to promote e-governance.”

Assumptions:

I). Now people would be more careful before riding their two-wheelers without a helmet and while driving their cars without wearing seatbelts or without valid motor insurance.

II). Contractors will be held responsible and blacklisted for the bad condition of roads.

III). The previous governments have not taken enough measures for road safety.

Statement:

 IIT Kharagpur graduate develops unique device ‘PM 2.5’ to curb vehicular air-pollution.

Arguments:

I). The invention works on a combination of electrical and wave energy which include PM 2.5 pollutants which attracts large number of PM 2.5 pollutants together, and the device makes such pollutants heavier and fall on ground and the invention should be implemented.

II). Apart from controlling air pollution created by the car in which it is installed, the device also has potential to neutralize the pollution emitted from 10 cars in its vicinity and it should be implemented.

What does the psychodynamic theory primarily emphasize in personality development?

Which of the following best represents a key focus of the humanistic theory, aststsed in the passage?

Which of the following is a direct outcome of the trait theory's approach to understanding personality?

What aspect of behaviour does social-cognitive theory uniquely underscore in relation to personality development?

Which of the following is the correct statement(s) based on the passage given?
(I) Psychodynamic theory posits that personality arises from extrinsic conflicts and the interplay of id, ego, and superego.
(II) Social-cognitive theory, by Albert Bandura, integrates social influences and cognitive processes in personality development.
(III) Exclusively, the humanistic theory offers distinct perspectives on personality, shedding light on various behavioural facets.

Which of the following is the antonym of the word “pioneered” highlighted in the passage?

Which of the following is the synonym of the word “perceived” highlighted in the passage?

In each of the following sentences, four words have been highlighted which may or may not be misspelt or inappropriate in their usage. Mark the erroneous word as your answer and if you think that all the words are correct in their spellings and usage, choose ‘All are correct’ as your answer.

Workplace mental health initiatives prioritize support, resources, and open dialogue to address employees' mentally well-being.

In each of the following sentences, four words have been highlighted which may or may not be misspelt or inappropriate in their usage. Mark the erroneous word as your answer and if you think that all the words are correct in their spellings and usage, choose ‘All are correct’ as your answer.

Renewable energy sources provide sustainable alternetives to fossil fuels, decreasing carbon emissions and combating climate change.

In each of the following sentences, four words have been highlighted which may or may not be misspelt or inappropriate in their usage. Mark the erroneous word as your answer and if you think that all the words are correct in their spellings and usage, choose ‘All are correct’ as your answer.

Artificial intelligence is revolutionizing healthcare by enhancing diaginosis accuracy, paving the way for personalized medicine outcomes.

In each of the questions given below, a few phrases are given in two columns. Choose the best possible combination of phrases as your answer from the given options, in order to form a meaningful sentence. If there is/ are no possible combination of phrases from the options given below, then mark “None of these” as your answer choice.

COLUMN I
(A) Omicron variant focuses on
(B) Watt's steam engine drove
(C) Deforestation threatens for
COLUMN II
(D) need for pandemic vigilance
(E) computing and communication
(F) contributes to climate change

In each of the questions given below, a few phrases are given in two columns. Choose the best possible combination of phrases as your answer from the given options, in order to form a meaningful sentence. If there is/ are no possible combination of phrases from the options given below, then mark “None of these” as your answer choice.

COLUMN I
(A) CRISPR-Cas9 offers
(B) Extreme weather events
(C) Ozone depletion from
COLUMN II
(D) the Industrial Revolution
(E) emphasize urgent climate action
(F) increases environmental damage

In each of the questions given below, a few phrases are given in two columns. Choose the best possible combination of phrases as your answer from the given options, in order to form a meaningful sentence. If there is/ are no possible combination of phrases from the options given below, then mark “None of these” as your answer choice.

COLUMN I
(A) Smartphones revolutionized
(B) Renewable energy sources
(C) Vaccination efforts intensify
COLUMN II
(D) against COVID-19 variants
(E) greenhouse gas emissions
(F) between East and West

In each of the questions given below, a few phrases are given in two columns. Choose the best possible combination of phrases as your answer from the given options, in order to form a meaningful sentence. If there is/ are no possible combination of phrases from the options given below, then mark “None of these” as your answer choice.

COLUMN I
(A) Emily Dickinson's poetry
(B) Haiti earthquake aftermath
(C) Newton's laws explain
COLUMN II
(D) to objects in classical mechanics
(E) into nature and mortality
(F) requires sustained support

In each of the questions given below, a few phrases are given in two columns. Choose the best possible combination of phrases as your answer from the given options, in order to form a meaningful sentence. If there is/ are no possible combination of phrases from the options given below, then mark “None of these” as your answer choice.

COLUMN I
(A) IMF warns of uneven recovery,
(B) The Big Bang theory describes
(C) Fleming's penicillin discovery
COLUMN II
(D) urges coordinated policies
(E) with its antibiotic properties
(F) through Captain Ahab's quest

Which of the following can appropriately fit in the highlighted blank (A)?

Which of the following can appropriately fit in the highlighted blank (B)?

Which of the following can appropriately fit in the highlighted blank (C)?

Which of the following can appropriately fit in the highlighted blank (D)?

Which of the following can appropriately fit in the highlighted blank (E)?

In the following question, a sentence is given with four bold words. The position of these words may be incorrect. Four options with different arrangements are provided. Mark your answer as the correct arrangement. If there is no rearrangement required, mark ‘No Interchange required’ as your answer.

In the controversies (A) of sports, realm (B) arise over athlete protests and activism, intersection (C) debates about the sparking (D) of sports and social justice.

In the following question, a sentence is given with four bold words. The position of these words may be incorrect. Four options with different arrangements are provided. Mark your answer as the correct arrangement. If there is no rearrangement required, mark ‘No Interchange required’ as your answer.

Environmental conservation increase (A) face setbacks as biodiversity loss severity (B) and natural disasters accelerates (C) in frequency and efforts (D).

In the following question, a sentence is given with four bold words. The position of these words may be incorrect. Four options with different arrangements are provided. Mark your answer as the correct arrangement. If there is no rearrangement required, mark ‘No Interchange required’ as your answer.

Diplomatic efforts to diplomacy (A) the nuclear deal face obstacles as negotiations (B) stall, highlighting the revive (C) of international complexities (D).

In the following question, a sentence is given with four bold words. The position of these words may be incorrect. Four options with different arrangements are provided. Mark your answer as the correct arrangement. If there is no rearrangement required, mark ‘No Interchange required’ as your answer.

The rise (A) of cryptocurrency and blockchain posing (B) financial markets, alters (C) regulatory, and financial stability (D) challenges for governments and regulators.

In the following question, a sentence is given with four bold words. The position of these words may be incorrect. Four options with different arrangements are provided. Mark your answer as the correct arrangement. If there is no rearrangement required, mark ‘No Interchange required’ as your answer.

under the whispered (A) twilight sky, the old oak tree shimmering (B) secrets to the wind, its leaves shadows (C) softly as children played hide and seek in the rustling (D).

An idiom is given in each of the questions below, following which are three sentences or situations. Mark the sentences which accurately represent the idiom as the answer.

Cut the mustard
(A) Despite his enthusiasm, he just couldn't cut the mustard as a sales manager.
(B) She knew that to cut the mustard in this competitive field, she would have to work harder than everyone else.
(C) After losing her job, Maria had to cut the mustard and start looking for a new one to support her family.

An idiom is given in each of the questions below, following which are three sentences or situations. Mark the sentences which accurately represent the idiom as the answer.

As right as rain
(A) After a few days of bed rest and plenty of fluids, she felt as right as rain again.
(B) When he said that the project failed due to a lack of clear communication, he really felt as right as rain.
(C) Once the software bugs were fixed, the app worked as right as rain.

An idiom is given in each of the questions below, following which are three sentences or situations. Mark the sentences which accurately represent the idiom as the answer.

Break the ice
(A) At the networking event, Sarah told a joke to break the ice and start conversations with other professionals.
(B) The rival company's surprise product launch broke the ice and overshadowed our own unveiling event.
(C) Before the job interview, Tom complimented the interviewer's tie to break the ice and establish rapport.

An idiom is given in each of the questions below, following which are three sentences or situations. Mark the sentences which accurately represent the idiom as the answer.

To have a bee in one's bonnet
(A) The children were eager to open their presents, but their parents told them to have a bee in their bonnet until after breakfast.
(B) Since watching the documentary about healthy eating, Tom has had a bee in his bonnet about eating only organic food.
(C) Jack has a bee in his bonnet about saving the environment, constantly advocating for recycling and sustainability.

An idiom is given in each of the questions below, following which are three sentences or situations. Mark the sentences which accurately represent the idiom as the answer.

Barking up the wrong tree
(A) Accusing Sally of taking the last donut was like barking up the wrong tree; it turned out Tim was the culprit.
(B) If you think I'm going to help you cheat on the exam, you're barking up the wrong tree.
(C) She was barking up the wrong tree trying to finish her thesis on time, often working well into the early hours of the morning.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Identify the Nodal Centre designated for the newly initiated Capacity Building on Design and Entrepreneurship (CBDE) program by the Ministry of Education, aimed at merging industry expertise with educational frameworks to foster entrepreneurial skills in future leaders.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana scheme to provide 5 kg of free food grains per month to 81.35 crore poor has been extended for five years from January 1, 2024.

B. The government will spend Rs 11.8 lakh crore on this scheme for the next five years.

C. AAY cardholders will get 25 kilograms of foodgrains per family per month and PHH scheme beneficiaries will get five kilograms per person per month.

Statement no.1: Former Indian Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu received the Padma Vibhushan Award in 2024.

Statement no.2: He served as the 14th vice president of India.

Statement no.3: He served for only one term from 2017 to 2022.

Statement no.4: He is the first Indian vice president born in independent India.

Which of the above statements are correct?

What is the enterprise value at which Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd. (APSEZ) agreed to acquire the stake in Gopalpur Port Ltd. (GPL)?

Who are among the members of the 3-member Indian men's recurve team that won the Archery World Cup gold in April 2024?

Consider the following statements: Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Union Cabinet chaired by the PM approved the extension of the Scheme of sugar subsidy for Antyodya Anna Yojna (AAY) families distributed through the PDS for two more years till 31 March 2027.

2. The scheme gives a subsidy of Rs 16.50 per kg per month of sugar to AAY families of participating States.

3. The scheme is expected to benefit about 1.89 crore AAY families in India.

The International Labour Organisation (ILO) is set to hold discussions on the care economy during its upcoming annual conference. This conference, which will be attended by representatives from India and 186 other countries, aims to enhance the understanding of the care economy and promote recognition of care work as essential to decent work and social justice. The ILO estimates that if sufficient investment is made to meet the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), global employment in care and related jobs could grow from 206 million in 2015 to __________ by 2030.

In March 2024, the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) received the Green Climate Fund's approval for its first anchored project, the Avaana Sustainability Fund valued at USD _______.

Consider the following statements: Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. As per the latest data from the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), the National Pension System (NPS) Assets Under Management experienced 30.5% year-on-year growth during FY24, reaching Rs 11.73 lakh Crore in FY24 from Rs 8.98 lakh crore in FY23.
B. This is higher than the 27% y-o-y increase seen in NPS assets in FY23.
C. The number of new government employees onboarded NPS in FY24 stood at 7.10 lakh.

The Government-owned National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) expects its loan sanctions pipeline to swell to about ₹2 lakh crore by March-end 2025. To support this growth, the institution plans to raise approximately ₹53,000 crore this year via bond market, bank, and multilateral credit lines. Which of the following statements about NaBFID is incorrect?

Executive Board of the IMF approved a proposal to make a ___________ increase in the quota allocated to members in proportion to their current quotas. Currently, India has a quota of special drawing rights (SDR) of ___________ making it the 8th-largest quota-holding country in the IMF.

Which African country has recently adopted the Unified Payment Interface (UPI) system from India's National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) into its Interbank Payment and Settlement Systems?

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Fundamental duties were added to the constitution through which amendment?

Consider the following statements: Which of the following statements is correct

1. Reliance Industries became the first Indian company to touch the Rs 20-lakh-crore market capitalisation level on the back of a nearly 30% rise in its stock price in three months.
2. RIL touched the Rs 1-lakh-crore market cap mark for the first time on Aug 2, 2005.
3. RIL, which has been the most valued company in India for over a decade, is now ranked (47th) among the world's top 50 companies in terms of market cap.
4. In India, RIL is ahead of TCS - the country's second most valued company - by Rs 3 lakh crore.

Consider the formation of following States and arrange these in chronological order :

1. Goa

2. Telangana

3. Jharkhand

4. Haryana

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

The __________, India’s leading general insurance provider, announced the launch of India’s first Satellite In-Orbit Third-Party Liability Insurance policy, which will provide critical financial protection to meet the growing needs of satellite manufacturers and operators in the Indian space sector. This policy offers complete coverage for third-party bodily injury and property damage in the event of an incident involving a satellite in orbit, in accordance with international standards and best practices.

The Gas Exporting Countries Forum (GECF) is an intergovernmental organization currently comprising 19 Member Countries of the world's leading natural gas producers. Which of the following are NOT the members?

1. Algeria

2. Bolivia

3. Iran

4. USA

5. India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

In February 2024, the RBI announced that the Interest Equalization Scheme (IES) for Pre and Post-Shipment Rupee Export Credit was extended by the Government of India (Gol) till ______________ with an additional allocation of Rs. 2500 crores.

Consider the following statements about the RBI's bond buyback and auction programs:

1. In May 2024, the RBI announced a buyback of government bonds worth Rs 40,000 crore.
2. The previous two auctions saw the RBI repurchase Rs 2,069 crore and Rs 10,512 crore worth of bonds against notified amounts of Rs 60,000 crore and Rs 40,000 crore, respectively.
3. The government plans to issue green bonds worth Rs 12,000 crore in the first half of the current financial year in two tranches of Rs 6,000 crore each.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

GST was introduced by which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act?

As per the Master Direction - Reserve Bank of India (Internal Ombudsman for Regulated Entities) Directions, 2023 issued by the Reserve Bank of India in January 2024, the regulated entities (REs) and their Internal Ombudsman (IOS) should communicate a final decision to customers within _______ days of receiving a complaint.

For the first time, India set up its pavilion at the World Hydrogen Summit 2024, It was set up by the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy and is one of the largest pavilions at the Summit. Which country hosted the World Hydrogen Summit 2024?

In February 2024, As per the RBI circular, what is the maximum time limit for settlement of import payments for gold imported by the Tariff Rate Quota (TRQ) holders through the India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX)?

In February 2024, In a move to redefine India's media landscape, Union Minister Anurag Singh Thakur launched four portals.

Which of the following pairs is/are matched correctly according to the above statement?

Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extended the Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) scheme by two years, until December 31, 2026.
2. The PIDF scheme was originally launched in January 2022 for a three-year period.
3. The scheme will now include beneficiaries of the PM Vishwakarma scheme, which provides financial assistance to artisans and craftsmen.
4. Beneficiaries of the PM SVANidhi Scheme in Tier-1 and 2 centres were later included in August 2021.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. India has contributed 1 million US Dollars to the Poverty and Hunger Alleviation Fund established by India, Brazil, and South Africa, IBSA.
B. Since its inception in 2006 and becoming operational in 2008, India's cumulative contribution to the IBSA Fund has surpassed USD 18 million.
C. To date, the IBSA Fund has allocated USD 50.6 million, supporting 45 projects across 37 countries of the global South.

The Government has announced funding up to 50% to create AI compute infrastructure under the India AI Mission, establishing at least 10,000 GPU worth of AI compute capacity. Which components are part of the IndiaAI Mission?

(1) IndiaAI Compute Capacity
(2) IndiaAI Innovation Centre
(3) IndiaAI Datasets Platform
(4) IndiaAI FutureSkills
(5) Safe & Trusted AI

The Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying (DAHD), Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying has recently signed an MoU with which international organization for digitalization of vaccine cold chain management, capacity building, and communication planning?

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Micron India's Sanand unit and its operations?

A) The semiconductor chips from the Sanand unit are intended for various sectors, including data centers and automotive applications.
B) Micron’s investment in the Sanand unit totals $2.75 billion, aimed at boosting India’s semiconductor capabilities.
C) There is a significant focus on continuous training, particularly for roles in cybersecurity and semiconductors.

Consider the following:

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

2. Missile Technology Control Regime

3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?

Consider the following statements with respect to Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) :

1. It includes securities and other financial assets passively held by foreign investors.

2. It provides the investor with direct ownership of financial assets.

3. It is part of a country’s current account.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Which Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) has recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Norwegian company M/s Ocean Sun for the implementation of floating solar energy technology in India in which they will explore key areas of cooperation for demonstration of Ocean Sun’s floating solar energy technology based on photovoltaic panels?

C-DOT, the premier Telecom R&D Centre of the Department of Telecommunications and Indian Institute of Technology, Jodhpur (IIT-J) has signed an agreement under the Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) Scheme. When was the Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF) Scheme launched by the Ministry of Communications to promote R&D in communication technologies for rural areas?

India's market capitalization to GDP ratio has reached a 15-year high of 140.2 percent from 95.8 percent at the end of March 2023. As per the BSE data, 4357 companies available for trade had a combined market capitalization of around Rs 416 trillion. This achievement is noteworthy as the current ratio is just below the all-time high of _____% at the end of December 2007.

Regarding the interim budget and regular budget, consider the following statements:

1. Both interim and regular budget covers a longer period.

2. Generally interim budget is presented during the election period.

3. Both interim and regular budgets include new policies or programs.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements about the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):

1. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an umbrella organization for retail payments in India.
2. It was established by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
3. It has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company under the Companies Act 1956.

Which of the following options is/are INCORRECT?

Part XX (twenty) of the Constitution of India deals with which of the following?

During the 608th meeting of the Central Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India, the Board approved the transfer of ₹2,10,874 crore as surplus to the Central Government for the accounting year 2023-24. This decision was based on the recommendations of the Expert Committee to Review the extant Economic Capital Framework of the Reserve Bank of India, chaired by __________. The Board also decided to increase the Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) to __________ percent of the Reserve Bank’s balance sheet size due to the robust and resilient economic conditions.

The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization that was initially founded as BIST-EC in June 1997. The organization now includes seven member states: Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, and Bhutan. BIMSTEC aims to accelerate shared growth and cooperation among these countries, and its permanent secretariat is located in __________.

Consider the following statements about EQT's investment plans and activities in India:

1. EQT is planning to invest up to $5 billion in India this year.
2. EQT Private Capital Asia closed a new mid-market growth fund with a commitment of $1.6 billion from investors.
3. EQT has invested over $10 billion in more than 30 companies in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

In which of the following states is the Nizam Sagar Dam situated?

In January 2024, As per RBI guidelines on the credit/investment concentration norms, Which of the following is not a credit risk transfer instrument as per the notification?

Consider the following statements about the Indian manufacturing sector:

1. The manufacturing sector contributes 17% of India's GDP.
2. Manufacturing exports reached a record high of USD 447.46 billion in FY23.
3. Capacity utilization for the manufacturing sector increased to 68.3% in Q2 (2021-22) from 60.0% in the previous quarter.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements about the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC):

1. The INSTC is a multi-modal transportation route linking India, Iran, Afghanistan, and Russia.

2. The primary objective of the INSTC is to reduce cost and time of cargo transport between Europe and Asia.

3. The INSTC became operational in December 2023.

How many of the statements given above are correct ?

Consider the following statements regarding PM Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman (PM VIKAS):

1. It was launched recently in Union Budget 2024-25.

2. It aims to support artists, craftsmen and small business owners financially and help them to grow their business by providing them capital support.

3. The Ministry of Finance is the nodal ministry of this scheme.

Which of the following is/are correct?

A CASA is a non-term deposit, meaning it is used for the everyday banking and savings needs of the consumer and does not have a specific maturity or expiration date. It is valid for as long as the account holder wants it to remain open. Which of the following formulas correctly calculates the CASA ratio?

The 6th edition of the International Conference on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (ICDRI) was held recently under the theme “Investing today for a more resilient tomorrow”. The primary goal of the ICDRI is to build a global community that is engaged in creating resilient infrastructure, which can withstand disasters and climate change. Which country hosted this conference?

RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das released the 1st flagship publication of the Centre for Advanced Financial Research and Learning (CAFRAL). Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the news?

A.) The report was titled "India Finance Report 2023 (IFR 2023)".
B.) The theme of the report is "Connecting the Last Mile: Non-Banking Financial Companies in India".
C.) CAFRAL is a not-for-profit organization setup in 2022 by the RBI as an independent body to promote research and learning in banking and finance.

In April 2024, according to the Tracxn Geo Quarterly Report released by Tracxn in April 2024, Indian fintech startups raised USD 550.8 million across 33 deals in the first quarter of Calendar Year (CY) 2024, marking a _______ increase from Q4 of 2023.

Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) is an Indian public sector undertaking that provides ticketing, catering, and tourism services for the state-owned Indian Railways. Who has been appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of IRCTC?

Consider the following statement regarding he ‘India Employment Report 2024’, released by the Institute for Human Development (IHD) and International Labour Organisation (ILO) in March 2024.

1. It was released by Chief Economic Adviser Pierre-Olivier Gourinchas on March 26.

2. The total unemployed youth has nearly doubled from 35.2% in 2000 to 65.7% in 2022.

3. States like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Chhattisgarh have struggled with poor employment outcomes over the years

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. The Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) Digital Payments Index, a measure of the extent of digitization of payments across the country, increased to 518.77 in September 2023 from 395.57 in March 2023.

B. The RBI-DPI has been constructed with March 2018 as the base period, that is, the DPI score for March 2018 is set at 100.

C. The weighted of Payment Enablers is 25% among the various parameters of RBI-DPI.

Which of the following Indian states does NOT have a bicameral legislative?

In January 2024, the Ministry of Tourism (MoT) collaborated with the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC) to launch the fifth training program under the Amrit Dharohar Capacity Building Scheme to Chilika Lake, a Ramsar site in ________ (state).

In February 2024, India finished ____________ in the medal tally with four medals (3 gold and 1 silver) in the 11th edition of the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships (2024) while _________ (country) topped the medal tally with 16 medals.

According to the World Economic Situation and Prospects 2024 Mid-Year Update Report by the United Nations, the global economy is now expected to grow by ________ in 2024, up from the previous forecast of 2.4%. India's expected growth rate is ________ in 2025.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. Federal Bank has launched National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) integrated debit cards which will enable its RuPay Debit Card holders to use their debit cards for offline payments at NCMC-enabled terminals at metro stations, buses, etc.

B. Cards issued after April 2021 will exclusively support the NCMC feature.

C. NCMC supports stored value payments (currently up to Rs 3,000 subject to Reserve Bank of India changes) for simplified digital payments during travel.

Which of the following points is/are "correct" with respect to funds raised through issuing bonds in three different currencies by the World Bank in January 2024?

A) The World Bank (WB) has launched a 5-year bond with the value of AUD 2 billion which will be maturing on 10th January 2029.
B) WB has launched a 7-year bond valuing USD 5 billion from investors and this transaction is the first in the SSA market in 2024 to generate the largest order book.
C) WB has launched a 5-year bond valued at CAD 1.4 billion to finance sustainable development initiatives in the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) member countries.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Floating Rate Bond (FRB) 2034 introduced by the Government of India?

A) The FRB offers a fixed interest rate of 8% throughout its tenure.
B) The interest rate for the FRB adjusts every six months based on the average yields of short-term government debt.
C) Interest payments on the FRB are made annually.
D) The FRB is backed by the Government of India, ensuring high security.
E) Premature encashment of the bond is allowed with penalties for senior citizens after a minimum lock-in period.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. The IRDAI has removed the requirement of case-to-case approval for investment in Infrastructure Debt Funds Non-Banking Financial Companies (IDF - NBFCs) by insurance companies.

B. The investment should be in line with Note 3 of Regulation 9 of IDRAI (Investment) Regulations 2014.

C. The minimum credit rating of AA or its equivalent by a Credit Rating Agency(CRA) registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to be eligible for the investment.

Lion-tailed macaques are found in which part of india?

Consider the following about OPEC & OPEC+ countries:

1. OPEC is a permanent, intergovernmental organization, created at the Baghdad Conference in 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela.

2. OPEC membership is open to any country that is a substantial exporter of oil and which shares the ideals of the organization.

3. The non-OPEC countries which export crude oil are termed as OPEC plus countries like  Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

The Global Minimum Tax deal, proposed to ensure that multinationals pay a fair share of taxes regardless of their operational locations, faces significant hurdles. Several countries are concerned about the potential impact on their tax revenues and economic competitiveness. As a result, the deal is at risk of failing due to the lack of unanimous agreement among participating nations. The primary objective of the deal is to set a minimum tax rate of _____% for multinational corporations.

Recently, the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) launched the National Single Window System (NSWS) Portal to streamline, import, clinical investigations, and testing of medical devices. The site is designed and developed by Invest India, under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) through _______________ (company) for CDSCO.

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, was enacted to prevent and control money laundering. It allows for the confiscation and seizure of property obtained from laundered money and defines the offence of money laundering under Section __________.

After the inclusion of a new parameter "State Food Safety Index 2023" released by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) in June, 19 out of 20 large states recorded a drop in their 2023 scores from 2019. Which state has recorded the steepest fall over 5 years in SFSI Score?

Match the following and choose the correct code :

An incubation center has been recently inaugurated at the National Council for Cement and Building Materials (NCB) to mentor startups/entrepreneurs by NCB scientists and industry experts. Which Ministry oversees the NCB?

Consider the following statements about the acquisition of Reliance Capital by Hinduja Group:

1. Hinduja Group's IndusInd International Holdings received IRDAI approval in May.
2. The acquisition includes Reliance General Insurance and Reliance Nippon Life Insurance.
3. The IRDAI approval is valid for one year and is subject to regulatory clearances.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Which of the following is correct regarding several awards in IPL 2024:

The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC) was announced on the sidelines of the G20 meeting in New Delhi. This corridor aims to provide a reliable and cost-effective cross-border ship-to-rail transit network to supplement existing maritime routes. The corridor will include a shipping route connecting Mumbai and Mundra (Gujarat) with the UAE and a rail network connecting the UAE, Saudi Arabia, and Jordan with the Israeli port of _______ to reach the shores of the Mediterranean Sea.

Consider the following statements: Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. Farmers' enrollment under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) has increased by 27% in the financial year 2023-24 (FY24).
B. So far, around 56.80 crore farmers have enrolled under PMFBY and more than 23.22 crore farmers have received claims.
C. Since 2016, Farmers have paid around Rs 31,139 crore as their share of premium against which they have claimed over Rs 1,55,977 crore.

Consider the following points about ‘Van Mitra’ scheme:

1. It is aimed at encouraging community participation in tree planting activities in forest areas.
2. The members of families with an annual income of less than Rs 1.80 lakh can register to become 'Van Mitras.'
3. Any individual aged between 18 and 60 can become a Van Mitra.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Ministry of Mines is responsible for survey and exploration of all minerals, other than natural gases, petroleum and atomic minerals, for mining and metallurgy of non-ferrous metals like aluminium, copper, zinc, lead, gold, nickel, etc. and for administration of the Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act, 1957 in respect of all mines and minerals other than coal, natural gas and petroleum. What is the name of the initiative launched by the Ministry of Mines in November 2023 to fund research and innovation for startups and MSMEs in the mineral sector, applied and sustainable mining, and industrial applications?

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. Fino Payments Bank has introduced NCMC-aligned debit and prepaid cards in collaboration with NPCI, powered by RuPay.
B. These cards are designed to support India's One Nation, One Card initiative.
C. State Bank of India has integrated NCMC cards on its Bharat BillPay platform in collaboration with NPCI Bharat BillPay Ltd.

Consider the following statements regarding the "Forbes World's Billionaires List 2024:"

1. The list saw a surge with 2,781 billionaires, up by 141 from last year.
2. The US dominated the list with a record 813 billionaires.
3. Mukesh Ambani retained his title as Asia's 9th richest person.

Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT?

Consider the following statements: which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. Private lender HDFC Bank opened a branch at Kavaratti Island in Lakshadweep, making it the only private sector bank to have a branch in the Union Territory.
B. HDFC Bank has branches in the cold climes of Kashmir, the southern tip of Kanyakumari, and now the island of Lakshadweep - a prominent tourist place.
C. As of December 31, 2023, the HDFC Bank's distribution network was at 8,091 branches and 20,688 ATMs across 3,872 cities or towns.

Consider the following points regarding the PM Suryoday Yojana eligibility:

1. The annual income of the applicant family should not be more than ₹ 1 lakh to ₹ 1.50 lakh
2.  No member of the family should be in a government job.
3.  No member of the family pays income tax, etc.

Which of the following are included in the eligibility criteria for applying under the PM Suryoday Yojana?