What is the position of B with respect to D?

Who among the following persons are sitting at the corners of the table?

I). The one who belongs to Bhutan

II). D

III). G

IV) .The one who sits opposite to Russia

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

If all persons are made to sit in reverse alphabetical order from H in a clockwise direction, then who among the following person remains unchanged in their position (Excluding H)?

Who among the following person sits exactly in the middle of F and D when counted from the left of F?

Which of the following given options is the best Course Of Action to be taken to prevent the youngsters from the impacts?

Three sentences have been labelled as (A), (B) and (C) in the passage above. Choose the relevant option from the given options that establishes the correct Cause and Effect relationship

Which of the given options can be assumed from the passage given above?

Choose the option that can be inferred based on the information in the paragraph given above

I.The rise of online gaming has gone unnoticed as OTT channels have taken the limelight

II. People used to devote lesser amount of time to OTT and Gaming in the pre-pandemic days

III. Parents feel that the regulation of online games will be vital to prevent the harm being done

What can be concluded from the information given in the paragraph above?

Who among the following lives on the 7th floor?

How many persons live between the one who likes Santro and E?

Which among the following floors is vacant?

Who likes Swift Car?

Who among the following lives immediately below the one who likes Breeza Car?

In the given questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements followed by some conclusions. Find the conclusion which is false.

Statements:

B < Q = L ≥ G; Q ≤ T = V > Z; G > M = H ≤ W; B ≥ Y > S

Conclusions:

In the given questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements followed by some conclusions. Find the conclusion which is false.

Statements:

W < Z = Y; D > H ≤ W < U; H ≥ B = T < Q; B > S ≤ F

Conclusions:

In the given questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements followed by some conclusions. Find the conclusion which is false.

Statements:

M > H ≥ U ≤ R = F; R ≤ Q ≤ G = T; H ≤ Z = Y < E

Conclusion:

Who sits second to the right of the one who sits opposite to E?

Which of the following statement(s) is/are not false with respect to the final arrangement?

What is the position of B with respect to the one who sits immediate left of G?

How many persons are sitting between I and A?

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?

Which of the following element is sixth from the right end in step IV?

Which of the following element is immediately followed by the second highest number in step V?

Which of the following correctly represents step VI?

What is the sum of the highest and the lowest number in step III?

Which of the following element is third from the right end in step VI?

How many persons attend the seminar between P and the person who attend in December 13^th   (both known and unknown persons)?

Who attends the seminar immediately after T?

Who among the following person attends the seminar on 13^th June?

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way thus form a group. Find the one which does not belongs to the group?

On which of the following month and date did S attend the seminar?

Which of the given options can be ‘inferred’ from the paragraph given above?

Which of the following ‘assumptions’ is correct as per the contents of the paragraph?

Choose the correct conclusion from the options given below.

STATEMENT: ​​ Higher disposal costs encourage those who produce waste to look for cheaper way to get rid of it. The term cost of disposal is used to describe the incremental expense directly attributed to the disposal of an asset, contract, or cash-generating entity. Cost of disposal is oftentimes a future liability that flows as an expense to the income statement as it is incurred.

Course of Action: ​​ 

1). The disposal cost should be made higher.

2). The disposal cost should be brought down.

3). A committee should be set up to study the details in this respect.

Statement:  Flavonoids are a common component of almost all plants, but a specific variety of flavonoid in apples has been found to be an antioxidant. Antioxidants are known to be a factor in the prevention of heart disease. 

Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the passage?

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical Series between the seventh letter from the left end and the eighth letter from the right end in step IV?

Which of the following letter is the immediate next letter (as per the English Alphabetical Series) of the letters, which are in the extreme ends in step 2?

If it is possible to make a meaningful word by using the first three letters from the left end and the first letter from the right end in step 4 (using each letter only once), then what will be the last letter of the newly formed word? If no such word is formed mark the answer as ‘X’. If more than one word can be formed mark the answer as ‘Z’.

If all the vowels in step 4 are dropped, then which of the following letter is eighth to the left of the sixteenth letter from the left end?

If “1” is added to the odd digits and “2” is subtracted from the even digits of the given numbers then add all the digits within the number thus formed, then which of the following number yields the resultant as the second-highest?

If the letters of each word are arranged in alphabetical order within the word from left to right and then in which of the following row the exact middle of each word thus formed will have the maximum number of vowel letters?

Who among the following person is from China?

What is the position of R with respect to the person whose age is 42?

How many persons are booking tickets between U and the person whose age is 25?

Four of the following five are alike in certain a way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following doesn’t belong to that group?

The difference between the ages of P and the person from Canada is one less than the difference between the ages of ____ and the person from _____.

I). R, Brazil

II). V, USA

III). Q, China

IV). P, Japan

Which of the following word represents the code “%∞$ #!@ %∞© #!&” in the given coded language?

Which of the following code is represents the word “Do what you love” in the given coded language?

If “Just one more chapter” is coded as “#!@ %!& %∞£ #∞@”, then what will be the code for “Collect” in the given coded language?

What is the code for the words “Lights coming” in the given coded language?

Below questions consists of a question followed by two statements. Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following statement is sufficient to answer the question.

Seven persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V booked train tickets during a week starting from Monday to Sunday. Only one person booked a ticket on each day. Who among the person booked a ticket immediately after T?

I). V booked a ticket on Friday. Only three person booked between V and U, who booked on the adjacent day of R. Three persons booked between R and T. S doesn’t book a ticket after T.

II). P booked a ticket on Wednesday. Only two persons booked between P and the one who booked immediately before Q. Only three persons booked between U and V, none of them booked a ticket on Tuesday. T neither booked a ticket on Tuesday nor Thursday.

Below questions consists of a question followed by two statements. Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following statement is sufficient to answer the question.

Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circular table facing the center. Who among them sits facing C?

I). B sits third to the right of C. One person sits between B and G, who doesn’t sit adjacent to C. G sits facing F. One person sits between E and H, who sits adjacent to F.

II). C sits third to the right of G, who sits second to the right of B. E and B are sitting together. One person sits between E and H.

Below questions consists of a question followed by two statements. Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following statement is sufficient to answer the question.

Seven boxes – P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are kept one above the other. Which of the box is kept two places above box R?

I). Three boxes are kept between P and U, which is kept immediately below R. One box is kept between S and T, which is not kept at the top.

II). Box V is kept third from the bottom. Three boxes are kept between V and Q, which is not kept adjacent to S. U is kept three places below S. Box P and T are kept together.

Below questions consists of a question followed by two statements. Study the following information carefully and decide which of the following statement is sufficient to answer the question.

Six persons – A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in a row facing north. Who among the persons sitting between B and F?

I). B sits second from the left end. Three persons are sitting between B and C. Two persons are sitting between D and E, who sits immediate right of A.

II). E sits third from the right end. A sits third to the left of C. Two persons are sitting between B and F, none of them sits at the end. D sits to the left of A.

If P@J*U, then how J is related to M and how many female members are there in this family?

K%G$L, U&M, U@T%L@V

What comes in the blank space respectively such that P is the daughter-in-law of M?

P_G@T_H!K%Q; H*M_T!L

Which of the following correctly represents B is the brother-in-law of F?

How does social sway alter one's emergency aid decision, per the narrative?

What does "diffusion of responsibility" imply in a crowded setting?

Why might people hesitate to act in situations where the need for help is not immediately clear?

What is the purpose of understanding the bystander effect as described in the passage?

Which of the following is the correct statement(s) based on the passage given?

(I) The presence of others augments the likelihood of offering assistance due to the bystander effect.

(II) Social norms deter people from aiding those in trouble, pushing them beyond their usual boundaries.

(III) Consciousness-raising efforts can highlight the bystander effect, fostering an empathetic, engaged society.

Which of the following fits appropriately in the blank given in the passage?

Which of the following is the antonym of the word “intervening” highlighted in the passage?

Which of the following is the synonym of the word “potentially” highlighted in the passage?

An idiom is given in each of the questions below, following which are three sentences or situations. Mark the sentences which accurately represent the idiom as the answer.

To go down like a lead balloon

(A) During the awkward silence at the dinner party, Mike shared a humorous story to go down like a lead balloon and lighten the mood.

(B) His attempt at telling a joke at the conference went down like a lead balloon, earning him nothing but awkward stares.

(C) The new marketing campaign went down like a lead balloon with the audience, resulting in a significant drop in sales.

An idiom is given in each of the questions below, following which are three sentences or situations. Mark the sentences which accurately represent the idiom as the answer.

To play devil's advocate

(A) The teacher encouraged students to play devil's advocate and argue for the opposing side of the debate to broaden their perspective.

(B) Sarah was shocked to discover that her seemingly perfect neighbour had played devil’s advocate, a criminal record from his youth.

(C) Before making a decision, it's important to play devil's advocate and analyze the potential consequences.

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the sentence is error-free then, choose “No error” as the answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

The morning sun rose, (A)/ casting a golden hue over (B)/ the lush fields, which (C)/ swayed graceful in the breeze. (D)

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the sentence is error-free then, choose “No error” as the answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

The sales representative (A)/ offered personalized recommendations (B)/ to one of the customer (C)/ based on their preferences. (D)

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the sentence is error-free then, choose “No error” as the answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

Sarah meticulously (A)/ organize her desk before (B)/ starting her day, ensuring everything (C)/ was perfectly in place. (D)

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the sentence is error-free then, choose “No error” as the answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

Jane might joining us for dinner (A)/ later, depending on her schedule and (B)/ other commitments, so we will keep a (C)/ place open for her at the table. (D)

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If the sentence is error-free then, choose “No error” as the answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

The cheetah earns its title (A)/ as a fastest land animal on Earth, (B)/ effortlessly sprinting across the African (C)/ savannah at speeds of up to 60 miles per hour. (D)

In the following passage there are blanks given. For each blank five words are suggested in each option, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.

Recent studies reveal that the number of chemicals present in plastics ______________ (A) previous estimates. This discovery underscores the complexity of plastic composition and its potential ______________ (B) for human health and the environment. Scientists have identified a myriad of additives, including plasticizers and flame retardants, _______________ (C) the diverse array of substances utilized in plastic manufacturing. Such findings raise concerns regarding the long-term effects of exposure to these chemicals, emphasizing the need for further research and ______________ (D) regulation to mitigate potential risks. Understanding the extensive chemical makeup of plastics is __________________ (E) in addressing their environmental and health impacts effectively.

Which of the following can appropriately fit in the highlighted blank (A)?

In the following passage there are blanks given. For each blank five words are suggested in each option, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.

Recent studies reveal that the number of chemicals present in plastics ______________ (A) previous estimates. This discovery underscores the complexity of plastic composition and its potential ______________ (B) for human health and the environment. Scientists have identified a myriad of additives, including plasticizers and flame retardants, _______________ (C) the diverse array of substances utilized in plastic manufacturing. Such findings raise concerns regarding the long-term effects of exposure to these chemicals, emphasizing the need for further research and ______________ (D) regulation to mitigate potential risks. Understanding the extensive chemical makeup of plastics is __________________ (E) in addressing their environmental and health impacts effectively.

Which of the following can appropriately fit in the highlighted blank (B)?

In the following passage there are blanks given. For each blank five words are suggested in each option, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.

Recent studies reveal that the number of chemicals present in plastics ______________ (A) previous estimates. This discovery underscores the complexity of plastic composition and its potential ______________ (B) for human health and the environment. Scientists have identified a myriad of additives, including plasticizers and flame retardants, _______________ (C) the diverse array of substances utilized in plastic manufacturing. Such findings raise concerns regarding the long-term effects of exposure to these chemicals, emphasizing the need for further research and ______________ (D) regulation to mitigate potential risks. Understanding the extensive chemical makeup of plastics is __________________ (E) in addressing their environmental and health impacts effectively.

Which of the following can appropriately fit in the highlighted blank (C)?

In the following passage there are blanks given. For each blank five words are suggested in each option, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.

Recent studies reveal that the number of chemicals present in plastics ______________ (A) previous estimates. This discovery underscores the complexity of plastic composition and its potential ______________ (B) for human health and the environment. Scientists have identified a myriad of additives, including plasticizers and flame retardants, _______________ (C) the diverse array of substances utilized in plastic manufacturing. Such findings raise concerns regarding the long-term effects of exposure to these chemicals, emphasizing the need for further research and ______________ (D) regulation to mitigate potential risks. Understanding the extensive chemical makeup of plastics is __________________ (E) in addressing their environmental and health impacts effectively.

Which of the following can appropriately fit in the highlighted blank (D)?

In the following passage there are blanks given. For each blank five words are suggested in each option, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.

Recent studies reveal that the number of chemicals present in plastics ______________ (A) previous estimates. This discovery underscores the complexity of plastic composition and its potential ______________ (B) for human health and the environment. Scientists have identified a myriad of additives, including plasticizers and flame retardants, _______________ (C) the diverse array of substances utilized in plastic manufacturing. Such findings raise concerns regarding the long-term effects of exposure to these chemicals, emphasizing the need for further research and ______________ (D) regulation to mitigate potential risks. Understanding the extensive chemical makeup of plastics is __________________ (E) in addressing their environmental and health impacts effectively.

Which of the following can appropriately fit in the highlighted blank (E)?

Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Overall, this innovation could revolutionize our understanding of animal behavior and sensory processing.
(B) Scientists have created a camera that mimics animal vision, specifically in detecting motion.
(C) This motion detecting camera leverages unique algorithms to replicate the motion perception of creatures like birds and fish.
(D) Hence, the motivation behind this development is to bridge the gap in our understanding of animal and human vision.
(E) Such human-animal differences in perception are critical for animals to survive and navigate their environments.
(F) The motion perception displays that while humans perceive motion in a certain way, animals have a varied range of motion detection abilities.

Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Overall, this innovation could revolutionize our understanding of animal behavior and sensory processing.
(B) Scientists have created a camera that mimics animal vision, specifically in detecting motion.
(C) This motion detecting camera leverages unique algorithms to replicate the motion perception of creatures like birds and fish.
(D) Hence, the motivation behind this development is to bridge the gap in our understanding of animal and human vision.
(E) Such human-animal differences in perception are critical for animals to survive and navigate their environments.
(F) The motion perception displays that while humans perceive motion in a certain way, animals have a varied range of motion detection abilities.

Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Overall, this innovation could revolutionize our understanding of animal behavior and sensory processing.

(B) Scientists have created a camera that mimics animal vision, specifically in detecting motion.

(C) This motion detecting camera leverages unique algorithms to replicate the motion perception of creatures like birds and fish.

(D) Hence, the motivation behind this development is to bridge the gap in our understanding of animal and human vision.

(E) Such human-animal differences in perception are critical for animals to survive and navigate their environments.

(F) The motion perception displays that while humans perceive motion in a certain way, animals have a varied range of motion detection abilities.

Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Overall, this innovation could revolutionize our understanding of animal behavior and sensory processing.

(B) Scientists have created a camera that mimics animal vision, specifically in detecting motion.

(C) This motion detecting camera leverages unique algorithms to replicate the motion perception of creatures like birds and fish.

(D) Hence, the motivation behind this development is to bridge the gap in our understanding of animal and human vision.

(E) Such human-animal differences in perception are critical for animals to survive and navigate their environments.

(F) The motion perception displays that while humans perceive motion in a certain way, animals have a varied range of motion detection abilities.

Which of the following would be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) Overall, this innovation could revolutionize our understanding of animal behavior and sensory processing.

(B) Scientists have created a camera that mimics animal vision, specifically in detecting motion.

(C) This motion detecting camera leverages unique algorithms to replicate the motion perception of creatures like birds and fish.

(D) Hence, the motivation behind this development is to bridge the gap in our understanding of animal and human vision.

(E) Such human-animal differences in perception are critical for animals to survive and navigate their environments.

(F) The motion perception displays that while humans perceive motion in a certain way, animals have a varied range of motion detection abilities.

Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

In each of the questions given below, a few phrases are given in two columns. Choose the best possible combination of phrases as your answer from the given options, in order to form a meaningful sentence. If there is/ are no possible combination of phrases from the options given below, then mark “None of these” as your answer choice.

COLUMN I

(A) Diplomatic efforts address

(B) DNA carries genetic

(C) Jane Austen's novels

COLUMN II

(D) Eastern Europe tensions

(E) love and societal norms

(F) an organism's traits

In each of the questions given below, a few phrases are given in two columns. Choose the best possible combination of phrases as your answer from the given options, in order to form a meaningful sentence. If there is/ are no possible combination of phrases from the options given below, then mark “None of these” as your answer choice.

COLUMN I

(A) Climate change poses a grave

(B) The internet revolutionized

(C) Vaccine distribution and

COLUMN II

(D) vital for ecological balance

(E) is transforming industries

(F) booster debates intensify

In each of the questions given below, a few phrases are given in two columns. Choose the best possible combination of phrases as your answer from the given options, in order to form a meaningful sentence. If there is/ are no possible combination of phrases from the options given below, then mark “None of these” as your answer choice.

COLUMN I

(A) Blockchain technology offers

(B) Cybersecurity threats spark

(C) The Cold War shaped global

COLUMN II

(D) keeping across applications

(E) much of the 20th century

(F) calls for stronger defenses

In each of the questions given below, a few phrases are given in two columns. Choose the best possible combination of phrases as your answer from the given options, in order to form a meaningful sentence. If there is/ are no possible combination of phrases from the options given below, then mark “None of these” as your answer choice.

COLUMN I

(A) Social justice movements

(B) The development balances

(C) Artificial intelligence is

COLUMN II

(D) push for equality globally

(E) and environmental needs

(F) industries with data analysis

In each of the questions given below, a few phrases are given in two columns. Choose the best possible combination of phrases as your answer from the given options, in order to form a meaningful sentence. If there is/ are no possible combination of phrases from the options given below, then mark “None of these” as your answer choice.

COLUMN I

(A) Asia-Pacific tensions rise

(B) COP26 aims for climate

(C) The Industrial Revolution

COLUMN II

(D) over territorial disputes

(E) action and sustainability

(F) with mechanized production

The National Health Authority (NHA) has achieved the milestone of generating 3 Crore OPD tokens through the ABHA-based Scan and Share Service. When was this service launched under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)?

Consider the following statements:

1. World Turtle Day was started by a non-profit organization called American Tortoise Rescue (ATR).

2. As per the latest amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act 2022, nobody will now be allowed to keep Indian turtle species at home.

3. IUCN has enlisted 25 of the 29 Indian turtle species on its red list in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

The fitment committee under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, comprising central and state officials, has begun a rate rationalization exercise afresh, checking the possibility of dropping some of the rates, particularly the _____ slab, to achieve a revenue-neutral structure.

Which of the following features are correct regarding the YES Bank ANQ Pi and Phi Credit Cards?

A) The Pi card offers digital-only transactions and is usable internationally.

B) The Phi card offers physical access and is usable for both domestic and international transactions.

C) The Pi card provides enhanced rewards on UPI transactions above Rs 2000.

D) Both Pi and Phi cards come with no joining fees.

E) The Phi card offers international lounge access and high rewards on selected spending categories.

Which Ministry, in collaboration with the Socio-Economic and Educational Development Society (SEEDS), launched the Implementation Manual of Tobacco Free Educational Institutions (ToFEI) on World No Tobacco Day (WNTD) 2024?

Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is a survey conducted by the NSO under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) to measure the employment and unemployment situation in India. The NSO launched the PLFS in April 2017. According to the PLFS for the 15-29 age group in urban areas for January-March 2024, what was the youth unemployment rate, and which State/UT recorded the lowest female unemployment rate?

Which countries did NOT take part in the IMT Tri-Lateral (TRILAT) Exercise, a collaborative maritime drill held from March 21st to March 29th, 2024?

Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) includes banks in the Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934, if they satisfy criteria laid down in Section 42(6)(a) of the Act.
2. Non-Scheduled Banks are those that are included in the Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934.
3. Scheduled Banks enjoy facilities such as eligibility for loans at the bank rate from the RBI and automatic membership of the clearinghouse.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

What is the name of India’s first Large Language Model (LLM) specifically designed for the banking, financial services, and insurance (BFSI) sector?

Consider the following statements:

1. The fixed remuneration for NEDs, other than the Chair of the board, shall not exceed ₹10 lakh per annum.
2. Banks can now pay NEDs up to ₹30 lakh per annum.
3. Private sector banks must obtain regulatory approval for the remuneration of Part-time Chairmen.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Who has recently become the first woman President of the European Investment Bank?

The Key Facts Statement (KFS) is intended to enhance transparency and reduce information asymmetry on financial products being offered by regulated entities. The KFS includes details about the annual percentage rate (APR) and ________, helping borrowers make informed financial decisions.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the aim of the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) in India?

Consider the following statements regarding Sikki, also known as Golden Grass:

1. It primarily grows in the hilly terrains of Kashmir valley.

2. It has been given the Geographical Indication (GI) Tag.

3. This grass has an average height of 3-4 feet.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding foreign direct equity investments in FY 2024 based on DPIIT data.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has amended the Master Direction on Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) to allow authorized banks and non-bank PPI issuers to issue PPIs for making payments across various public transport systems. Small PPIs, which require minimum details of the holder, can be used only for the purchase of goods and services. Full-KYC PPIs, which require Know Your Customer (KYC) compliance, can be used for the purchase of goods and services, ________, and cash withdrawals.

Which of the following is the United Nations specialized agency responsible for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention of marine and atmospheric pollution by ships?

According to the 21st quarterly Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) bulletin for October-December 2023 (Q3FY24) released by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) in February 2024, India's urban unemployment rate (UR) declined to _______.

UNESCO’s Executive Board has endorsed the addition of 18 sites to the UNESCO Global Geoparks network. As of 2024, how many UNESCO Global Geoparks are there?

In March 2024, Google launched an AI platform launched poised to transform the gaming industry and creative endeavors. What is the name of an AI platform?

Participation of Indian Banks on India International Bullion Exchange IFSC Limited (IIBX):

Consider the following statements:

1. Indian banks can act as Professional Clearing Members (PCM) of IIBX.
2. Indian banks authorized to import gold/silver can act as Special Category Clients (SCC) of IIBX.
3. Indian banks can execute proprietary trades as Trading Members (TM) of IIBX.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Over 22.5 lakh accounts have been opened under the Mahila Samman Saving Certificate Scheme (MSSCS) in the first nine months of the fiscal with a deposit of over how much crore rupees?

Which organizations have partnered to develop an indigenous Train Control Management System (i-TCMS) aimed at revolutionising rail communication technology in India?

Which of the following statements is/are true about terms related to Green Net National Income?

1. It is the difference between Net National Income and Depreciation of Natural Capital.

2. Net National Income is the market value of the final goods and services produced by the residents of the country during the period of one year.

3. Depreciation of Natural Capital means loss of value of the capital because of its continuous use.

4. Natural capital refers to the sum total of natural resources including environment.

Under the CIMS Project Implementation, banks are required to submit statutory returns such as Form A, Form VIII, and Form IX on the CIMS Portal. Form A is used for reporting the maintenance of the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Form VIII for the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), and Form IX for reporting ________.

The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India is a regulator of the telecommunications sector in India that was set up by the Government of India under section 3 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. Who has been appointed as the chairman of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)?

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) released a master circular on health insurance, specifying that an insurer will have to decide on cashless authorization within _____ of request. The master circular consolidates 55 previous circulars and emphasizes providing a seamless and hassle-free claims experience to policyholders.

Consider the following about Special Drawing Right (SDR)

1. The SDR is an international reserve asset created and administered by the WTO

2. SDRs can be exchanged for freely usable currencies

3. A Gold backing is mandatory for a nation to increase SDR deposits

4. The SDR is a not the financial claim on the IMF as it is accepted by most international organizations

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

The Antarctic Treaty was signed in Washington on 1 December 1959 by the twelve countries whose scientists had been active in and around Antarctica during the International Geophysical Year (IGY) of 1957-58. It entered into force in 1961 and has since been acceded to by many other nations. The total number of Parties to the Treaty is now 57. What was the theme of the 46th Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meeting (ATCM-46) and the 26th Committee on Environmental Protection (CEP-26) recently hosted by India?

Consider the following statements about the Green Credit Program (GCP):

1. The GCP was launched at COP28 in 2023.

2. It aims to incentivize environmental activities through 'Green Credits'.

3. The initial phase focuses on sustainable agriculture.

Which of the above statements are correct?

According to the recently released working paper on “Financing gap for universal social protection” by the International Labour Organization (ILO), low- and middleincome countries need to increase additional spending by _________ to ensure universal social protection. India requires ________ to ensure universal social protection and has a financing gap of ________ of GDP.

In March 2024, The Reserve Bank of India gave its approval for the merger of Fincare Small Finance Bank Ltd. with AU Small Finance Bank. Under which section of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 the merger is sanctioned?

The President of India can be impeached for violation of the Constitution under which article?

Which public sector undertaking (PSU) was recently awarded 'The Economic Times HR World Future Ready Organization Award 2024-25'?

Recently, Operation AMRITH was seen in the news. Which of the following statement about it is incorrect?

Menstrual Hygiene Day is an annual awareness day on May 28 to highlight the importance of good menstrual hygiene management at a global level. The report, "Progress on Drinking Water, Sanitation, and Hygiene in Schools 2000-2023: Special Focus on Menstrual Health" was released on Menstrual Hygiene Day. Which organization(s) released this report?

Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said that the government will encourage vaccination for girls in the age group of which years for prevention of cervical cancer?

The combined Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) increased by 6.2% in April 2024 compared to April 2023. Which sectors recorded positive growth in April 2024?

(1) Natural Gas

(2) Electricity

(3) Cement

(4) Fertilizers

(5) Coal

The International Labour Organization (ILO) is devoted to promoting social justice and internationally recognized human and labour rights, pursuing its founding mission that social justice is essential to universal and lasting peace. According to the International Labour Organization's (ILO) World Employment and Social Outlook: May 2024 Update, what is the revised global unemployment rate for 2024?

In April 2024, PhonePe said it has partnered with Nepal's digital wallet service eSewa and which hotel association to promote digital payments through UPI on the Himalayan country's payment processor Fonepay Network?

Which program was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY's) e-governance service provider Common Services Centres (CSC) in collaboration with leading IT infrastructure service providers to enhance cybersecurity in rural and remote areas?

Which statements about the World Economic Forum's Travel & Tourism Development Index (TTDI) 2024 are correct?

1. India's position in the TTDI 2024 is 39th, improving from 54th in 2021.
2. US, Spain, Japan, France, and Australia are the top five countries in the TTDI 2024.
3. India has shown a strong recovery in international tourist arrivals, surpassing 2019 levels.

The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) has launched a Psyche Aircraft for the Psyche Mission for the exploration of a unique metal-rich asteroid orbiting the sun between _______ and _______.

What is the name of the Digital Gateway initiative launched by the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) to facilitate farmers in obtaining post-harvest loans from banks against their stocks stored in the WDRA registered warehouses?

Consider the following statements about Kadet Defence Systems (KDS) and its development of Loitering Aerial Munitions (LAM) for the Indian armed forces:

1. KDS is the first Indian company to develop Loitering Aerial Munitions (LAM), in partnership with the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO).
2. The LAM Systems include Canister Aerial Loitering Munition (CALM), Combat UAVs with stand-off capabilities for munition release, and Tactical VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) UAVs.
3. A contract has been placed for the delivery of 50 LAM systems by the end of 2024, with an aim to deliver five thousand systems within the next 2-3 years.
4. Over 90% of the components used in the LAM systems are imported to promote international cooperation in defense production.

PM Modi releases the first installment of PM-JANMAN to 1 lakh beneficiaries. Its beneficiaries includes how many communities are located in 18 states and the Union Territory (UT) of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Consider the following regarding the Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR):

1. APAAR, dubbed 'One Nation, One Student ID', is an Education Ecosystem Registry, or an 'EduLocker'.

2. It assigns a unique identification number to every student, ranging from pre-primary to higher education.

3. This will be linked to the already existing Aadhaar ID that every individual has.

Which of the above statements is/are correct here?

Oral contraceptives (birth control pills) are hormone-containing medications that are taken by mouth to prevent pregnancy. What is the name of India's first oral contraceptive pill developed by Dr. Nitya Anand?

Which UN Department or agency released the World Economic Situation and Prospects Report 2024?

Consider the following statements:

1. The Lead Bank Scheme was introduced by RBI in 1969 to improve banking services in rural and semi-urban areas.
2. Each district is assigned to a commercial bank known as the Lead Bank.
3. The new district, Tamulpur, in the state of Assam has been designated the Lead Bank.
4. There is no change in the Lead Banks of the other districts in the state of Assam.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

The International Football Association Board (IFAB) is the body that determines the Laws of the Game of association football and was founded in 1886. The IFAB is preparing to debut which card as part of trials involving sin bins in professional football?

Regarding EPFO's recent changes, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The auto withdrawal limit under Paragraph 68J has been raised to Rs 1,00,000.

2. Paragraph 68N enables advance payments for purchasing necessary equipment for physically impaired members.

3. Subscribers need their employer's attestation for claim submissions under the UAN system

The RBI has allowed resident entities to hedge their exposure to gold price risk using OTC derivatives in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC). Hedging helps mitigate risks associated with adverse price movements in an asset. OTC derivatives include futures contracts, options, and ________.

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act falls under which one of the following Parts of the Constitution of India?

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Union Minister Bhupender Yadav, Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) announced that 5 wetlands from India (3 from Karnataka and 2 from Tamil Nadu-TN) were designated as RAMSAR Sites.

2. With this addition, the total number of RAMSAR sites in India has increased from 75 to 80.

3. The total number of RAMSAR sites in TN has increased to 16.

4. TN tops the list of states with a maximum number of RAMSAR sites followed by Uttar Pradesh (10 sites).

Which of the following statements is true about the Sixteenth Finance Commission (SFC) as of January 2024?

1. It is tasked with defining the distribution of the Centre's tax revenue to states for the next five years.

2. The government has appointed four members of the Sixteenth Finance Commission (SFC).

3. Shri Suman Bery to lead the Sixteenth Finance Commission (SFC).

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the findings and recommendations of the "A World of Debt Report 2024: A Growing Burden to Global Prosperity" released by UNCTAD?

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has excluded “Rupee Co-operative Bank Limited” from the Second Schedule to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Banks included in this Schedule, known as Scheduled Banks, enjoy certain benefits such as eligibility for loans at the bank rate from the RBI and automatic membership of the ________. The exclusion of Rupee Co-operative Bank Limited indicates that it no longer meets the criteria for inclusion in the Schedule.

Consider the following statements: Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. 10 crore Mudra Yojana loans given to women entrepreneurs.

B. Female enrolment in higher education went up by 28%.

C. In STEM courses, girls and women constitute 43% of enrolment, one of the highest in the world.

D. Over 60% of houses under PM Awas Yojana are given to women from rural areas.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Interest Equalization Scheme (IES) provides benefits to identified export sectors.
2. The scheme offers an interest equalization benefit of 33% to MSME manufacturer exporters.
3. The benefit is capped at Rs 10 Crore per annum per Import Export Code (IEC).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Which two states are highlighted for their leadership in the progress toward the clean energy transition in the 'Indian States' Electricity Transition' (SET) report by the Institute for Energy Economics and Financial Analysis (IEEFA) and Ember?

Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) must obtain prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for the appointment or re-appointment of any Director, Managing Director, or Chief Executive Officer. Applications for approval must be submitted at least ninety days before the proposed date of appointment or re-appointment. The applications must include the required documents and information as specified by the RBI, and ARCs must comply with the guidelines under the ________.

Which of the following organizations are known as Bretton Wood Twins?

A) World Bank (WB)

B) World Trade Organisation (WTO)

C) United Nations (UN)

D) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

An MoU has been signed between CSC SPV and which Ministry to convert Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) into Common Service Centres (CSCs) for enhancing their ability to deliver citizen-centric services?

Match List I with List II

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Which athlete won the Men's High Jump event at the USATF Festival in Tucson, Arizona, USA (May 2024)?

How many articles come under 'Right to Equality'?

Consider the following statements about Pine Labs:

1. Pine Labs received approval from a Singapore court to merge its India and Singapore entities.
2. Pine Labs is the first fintech company to relocate its domicile to India.
3. Pine Labs' move is similar to that of PhonePe and Groww.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA):

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme of the Government of India executed through the Ministry of Education.

2. The scheme aims to work with over 300 Higher educational institutions (HEIs) including the state universities, and its affiliated colleges to raise the quality of education.

3. The key objectives of PM-USHA are to improve access, equity, and quality in higher education through the planned development of higher education at the state level.

How many of the statement/s given above is/are correct? 

Consider the following statements about the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) and identify the correct statement(s):

1. IPEF was launched in 2022 in Tokyo, Japan.
2. It has 14 member countries, including India, Japan, and the USA.
3. The framework is structured around four pillars: Trade, Supply Chain Resilience, Clean Economy, and Fair Economy.
4. India has joined all four pillars of IPEF.
5. The objective of IPEF is to strengthen economic engagement and cooperation among partner countries.

Which of the following countries have recently launched the Biopharmaceutical Alliance to enhance the resilience of the biopharmaceutical sector's supply chain?

1. USA
2. India
3. Australia
4. South Korea
5. Japan

An Electric Tiller is an agricultural machine that can perform tasks like puddling, leveling, and harvesting. The machine is driven by an electric motor which uses a sprocket chain arrangement to drive the pulling wheel. Which scientific organization has recently introduced an Electric Tiller for small to marginal farmers?

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on May 28 launched three major initiatives: the PRAVAAH portal, the RBI Retail Direct mobile application, and the _________. These initiatives were announced as part of RBI’s bi-monthly Statement on Development and Regulatory Policies in April 2023, April 2024, and December 2023, respectively. The PRAVAAH portal will make it convenient for individuals or entities to apply online for various regulatory approvals in a seamless manner.

Intellectual property (IP) pertains to any original creation of the human intellect such as artistic, literary, technical, or scientific creation. Intellectual property rights (IPR) refers to the legal rights given to the inventor or creator to protect his invention or creation for a certain period of time. Which international organization has recently approved its first treaty on intellectual property related to genetic resources (GRs) and associated traditional knowledge (ATK)?

Consider the following statements: Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Indian Government informed the Parliament that the number of beneficiaries under the flagship Direct Benefit transfer (DBT) scheme, PM-Kisan has fallen 14 percent to 9.21 crore in 2023-24 from 10.73 crore last year.

2. If the final number of beneficiaries is contained within 9.5 crore, the annual outgo could be around 57,000 crore at the current rate of disbursal of ₹6,000/year.

3. The government has allocated 60,000 crores under PM-Kisan for FY25.

4. The government has a proposal to increase the financial benefit to farmers under the PM-KISAN scheme to Rs 8,000-12,000 per year, including for women farmers.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) decided to transfer a record surplus of Rs 2.11 trillion to the government for FY24, which is more than double the Centre’s budgeted figure for dividends from the central bank and other public-sector undertakings (PSUs). This decision was taken despite the increase in the contingent risk buffer to __________, the higher end of the Bimal Jalan Committee proposed range, reflecting the robust and resilient state of the economy.

The Global Report on Food Crises (GRFC) 2024 identified key drivers of food crises in 2023. Which of the following are the key drivers?

(1) Conflict and Insecurity
(2) High Interest Rates
(3) Extreme Weather Events/Climate Shocks
(4) High Demand
(5) Economic Shocks

Who among the following have authority to summon the Parliament?

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. RBI has issued Guidelines on the import of gold by Tariff Rate Quota (TRQ) holders under the India-United Arab Emirates (UAE) Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA).

B. This information by RBI is issued under Section 10(4) and Section 11(1) of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1997.

C. The India-UAE free trade agreement, effective from May 2022, grants a 3% duty concession to domestic importers on a specified quantity of gold under the TRQ provisions.

Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?