AIIMS PYP 2011

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Solution

In Young’s double slit experiment carried out with wavelength λ=5000Å, the distance between the slits is 0.2 mm and the screen is 2 m away from the slits. The central maxima is at n = 0. The third maxima will be at a distance x (from central maxima) is equal to

In Young’s double slit experiment carried out with wavelength λ=5000Å, the distance between the slits is 0.2 mm and the screen is 2 m away from the slits. The central maxima is at n = 0. The third maxima will be at a distance x (from central maxima) is equal to

A gang capacitor is formed by interlocking a number of plates as shown in figure. The distance between the consecutive plates is 0.885 cm and the overlapping area of the plates is 5 cm². The capacity of the unit is

A gang capacitor is formed by interlocking a number of plates as shown in figure. The distance between the consecutive plates is 0.885 cm and the overlapping area of the plates is 5 cm². The capacity of the unit is

The freezer in a refrigerator is located at the top section so that

The freezer in a refrigerator is located at the top section so that

A choke is preferred to a resistance for limiting current in AC circuit because

A choke is preferred to a resistance for limiting current in AC circuit because

A thin prism P₁ of angle 4 ° and refractive index 1.54 ° is combined with another thin prism P₂ of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of P₂ is

A thin prism P₁ of angle 4 ° and refractive index 1.54 ° is combined with another thin prism P₂ of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of P₂ is

What will be the number of photons emitted per second by a 10 W sodium vapour lamp assuming that 90% of the consumed energy is converted into light [Wavelength of sodium light is 590 nm, and h = 6.63×10^-34 J –s]

What will be the number of photons emitted per second by a 10 W sodium vapour lamp assuming that 90% of the consumed energy is converted into light [Wavelength of sodium light is 590 nm, and h = 6.63×10^-34 J –s]

200 MeV of energy may be obtained per fission of U²³⁵. A reactor is generating 1000 kW of power. The rate of nuclear fission in the reaction is

200 MeV of energy may be obtained per fission of U²³⁵. A reactor is generating 1000 kW of power. The rate of nuclear fission in the reaction is

As shown in the figure a magnet is moved with a fast speed towards a coil at rest. Due to this induced emf, induced current and induced charge in the coil is E, I and Q respectively. If the speed of the magnet is doubled, the incorrect statement is

As shown in the figure a magnet is moved with a fast speed towards a coil at rest. Due to this induced emf, induced current and induced charge in the coil is E, I and Q respectively. If the speed of the magnet is doubled, the incorrect statement is

Which one of the following is not made of soft iron?

Which one of the following is not made of soft iron?

Q.10 In-correct

Two tangent galvanometer having coils of the same radius are connected in series. A current flowing in them produces deflection of 60 ° and 45 ° respectively. The ratio of the number of turns in the coils is

Two tangent galvanometer having coils of the same radius are connected in series. A current flowing in them produces deflection of 60 ° and 45 ° respectively. The ratio of the number of turns in the coils is

Q.11 In-correct

A bar magnet of magnetic moment 10⁴ J/T is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. The work done in rotating the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to a horizontal magnetic field of 4×10^-5 T to a direction of 60 ° from the field will be

A bar magnet of magnetic moment 10⁴ J/T is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. The work done in rotating the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to a horizontal magnetic field of 4×10^-5 T to a direction of 60 ° from the field will be

Q.12 In-correct

An ideal coil of 10 H is joined in serried with a resistance of 5 Ω and battery of 5 V, 2 s after joining the current flowing (in ampere) in the circuit will be

An ideal coil of 10 H is joined in serried with a resistance of 5 Ω and battery of 5 V, 2 s after joining the current flowing (in ampere) in the circuit will be

Q.13 In-correct

A rocket is fired upward from the earth surface such that it creates an acceleration of 19.6 m/s². If after 5 s, its engine is switched off, the maximum height of the rocket from earth’s surface would be

A rocket is fired upward from the earth surface such that it creates an acceleration of 19.6 m/s². If after 5 s, its engine is switched off, the maximum height of the rocket from earth’s surface would be

Q.14 In-correct

A 60 kg weight s dragged on a horizontal surface by a rope through a distance of 2m. If coefficient of friction is μ=0.5, the angle of rope with surface is 60 ° and g =9.8 m/s², then work done is

A 60 kg weight s dragged on a horizontal surface by a rope through a distance of 2m. If coefficient of friction is μ=0.5, the angle of rope with surface is 60 ° and g =9.8 m/s², then work done is

Q.15 In-correct

A small uncharged metallic sphere is positioned exactly at a point midway between two equal and opposite point charges. If the sphere is slightly displaced towards the positive charge and released then

A small uncharged metallic sphere is positioned exactly at a point midway between two equal and opposite point charges. If the sphere is slightly displaced towards the positive charge and released then

Q.16 In-correct

A capacitor of capacitance 5μF is connected as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the cell is 0.5 Ω. The amount of charge on the capacitor plate is

A capacitor of capacitance 5μF is connected as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the cell is 0.5 Ω. The amount of charge on the capacitor plate is

Q.17 In-correct

The resistance if a circular coil of 50 turns and 10 cm diameter is 5Ω. What must be the potential difference across that ends of the coil so as to nullify the earth’s magnetic field (H=0.314 gauss) at the centre of the coil? How should the coil be placed to achieve this result?

The resistance if a circular coil of 50 turns and 10 cm diameter is 5Ω. What must be the potential difference across that ends of the coil so as to nullify the earth’s magnetic field (H=0.314 gauss) at the centre of the coil? How should the coil be placed to achieve this result?

Q.18 In-correct

If C and L denote the capacitance and inductance respectively, the units of LC are

If C and L denote the capacitance and inductance respectively, the units of LC are

Q.19 In-correct

The K_α line from Molybdenum (atomic number = 42) has a wavelength of 0.7078Å. The wavelength of K_αline of zinc (atomic number = 30) will be

The K_α line from Molybdenum (atomic number = 42) has a wavelength of 0.7078Å. The wavelength of K_αline of zinc (atomic number = 30) will be

Q.20 In-correct

A body of mass 0.5 kg is projected under gravity with a speed of 98 m/s at an angle of 60 ° with the horizontal. The change in momentum (in magnitude) of the body is

A body of mass 0.5 kg is projected under gravity with a speed of 98 m/s at an angle of 60 ° with the horizontal. The change in momentum (in magnitude) of the body is

Q.21 In-correct

The diameter of the objective of a telescope is 0.1 m and the wavelength of the light is 6000 Å. Its resolving power would be approximately

The diameter of the objective of a telescope is 0.1 m and the wavelength of the light is 6000 Å. Its resolving power would be approximately

Q.22 In-correct

The dispersive powers of glasses of lenses used in an achromatic pair are in the ratio 5 : 3. If the focal length of the concave lens is 15 cm, then the nature and focal length of the other lend would be

The dispersive powers of glasses of lenses used in an achromatic pair are in the ratio 5 : 3. If the focal length of the concave lens is 15 cm, then the nature and focal length of the other lend would be

Q.23 In-correct

A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and Q-q. If the coulomb repulsion between them when they are separated is to be maximum, the ratio of

A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and Q-q. If the coulomb repulsion between them when they are separated is to be maximum, the ratio of

Q.24 In-correct

A rectangular vessel when full of water, takes 10 min to be emptied through an orifice in its bottom. How much time will it take to be emptied when half filled with water?

A rectangular vessel when full of water, takes 10 min to be emptied through an orifice in its bottom. How much time will it take to be emptied when half filled with water?

Q.25 In-correct

If there were no gravity, which of the following will not be there for a fluid?

If there were no gravity, which of the following will not be there for a fluid?

Q.26 In-correct

A = 4i + 4j – 4k and B = 3i + j + 4k, then angle between vectors A and B is

A = 4i + 4j – 4k and B = 3i + j + 4k, then angle between vectors A and B is

Q.27 In-correct

Consider the following statements
(i) For a permanent magnet the area of a hysteresis loop is allowed to be large.
(ii) Coercively of the material in permanent magnets should be small.
Which of the following statements is/are true?

Consider the following statements
(i) For a permanent magnet the area of a hysteresis loop is allowed to be large.
(ii) Coercively of the material in permanent magnets should be small.
Which of the following statements is/are true?

Q.28 In-correct

Two capacitors of 10μF and 20μF are connected in series with a 30 V battery. The charge on the capacitors will be respectively

Two capacitors of 10μF and 20μF are connected in series with a 30 V battery. The charge on the capacitors will be respectively

Q.29 In-correct

The magnetic field at P on the axis of a solenoid having 100 turns/m and carrying a current of 5 A is

The magnetic field at P on the axis of a solenoid having 100 turns/m and carrying a current of 5 A is

Q.30 In-correct

In an isobaric process of an ideal gas. The ratio of heat supplied and work done by the system

In an isobaric process of an ideal gas. The ratio of heat supplied and work done by the system

Q.31 In-correct

The velocity of sound in air at NTP is 330 m/s. What will be its value when temperature is doubled and pressure is halved?

The velocity of sound in air at NTP is 330 m/s. What will be its value when temperature is doubled and pressure is halved?

Q.32 In-correct

Doppler’s effect is sound in addition of relative velocity between source and observer or both are moving. Doppler effect in light depend only on the relative velocity of source and observer. The reason of this is

Doppler’s effect is sound in addition of relative velocity between source and observer or both are moving. Doppler effect in light depend only on the relative velocity of source and observer. The reason of this is

Q.33 In-correct

If EMF = 4 volt ω = 1000t volt is applied to an L-R circuit of inductance 3 mH and resistance 4Ω, the amplitude of current in the circuit is

If EMF = 4 volt ω = 1000t volt is applied to an L-R circuit of inductance 3 mH and resistance 4Ω, the amplitude of current in the circuit is

Q.34 In-correct

Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I superimpose. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are

Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I superimpose. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are

Q.35 In-correct

The X-ray tube s operated at 50 kV. The minimum wavelength produced is

The X-ray tube s operated at 50 kV. The minimum wavelength produced is

Q.36 In-correct

The energy gap between conduction band and valence band if of the order of 0.07 eV. It is a/an

The energy gap between conduction band and valence band if of the order of 0.07 eV. It is a/an

Q.37 In-correct

The earth circles around the sun once a year. The work which would have to be done on the earth to bring it to rest relative to the sun is, (Ignore the rotation of earth about its own axis) given that the mass of the earth = 6×10²⁴ kg and the distance between sun and earth is 1.5×10⁸ km)

The earth circles around the sun once a year. The work which would have to be done on the earth to bring it to rest relative to the sun is, (Ignore the rotation of earth about its own axis) given that the mass of the earth = 6×10²⁴ kg and the distance between sun and earth is 1.5×10⁸ km)

Q.38 In-correct

A longitudinal wave is represented by
x= x₀ sin2π

The maximum particle velocity will be four times the wave velocity, if

A longitudinal wave is represented by
x= x₀ sin2π

The maximum particle velocity will be four times the wave velocity, if

Q.39 In-correct

The rate of dissipation of heat by a black body at temperature T is Q. What will be the rate of dissipation of heat by another body at temperature 2 T and emissivity 0.25?

The rate of dissipation of heat by a black body at temperature T is Q. What will be the rate of dissipation of heat by another body at temperature 2 T and emissivity 0.25?

Q.40 In-correct

The radius of gyration of a body about an axis at a distance of 6 cm from its centre of mass is 10 cm. Then, its radius of gyration about a parallel axis through its centre of mass will be

The radius of gyration of a body about an axis at a distance of 6 cm from its centre of mass is 10 cm. Then, its radius of gyration about a parallel axis through its centre of mass will be

Q.41 In-correct

Assertion: The projectile has only vertical component of velocity at the highest point of its trajectory.
Reason: At the highest point only one component of velocity present.

Assertion: The projectile has only vertical component of velocity at the highest point of its trajectory.
Reason: At the highest point only one component of velocity present.

Q.42 In-correct

Assertion: Thrust on a rocket depends not only on the rate of decrease of mass.
Reason: Thrust also depends upon exhaust speed of the gases.

Assertion: Thrust on a rocket depends not only on the rate of decrease of mass.
Reason: Thrust also depends upon exhaust speed of the gases.

Q.43 In-correct

Assertion: When a ball collides elastically with a floor, it rebounds with the same velocity as with it strikes.
Reason: Momentum of earth + ball system remains constant.

Assertion: When a ball collides elastically with a floor, it rebounds with the same velocity as with it strikes.
Reason: Momentum of earth + ball system remains constant.

Q.44 In-correct

Assertion: When a body accelerates down an incline rolling purely static friction force acts on the body.
Reason: Point of contact of the body with incline remain at rest.

Assertion: When a body accelerates down an incline rolling purely static friction force acts on the body.
Reason: Point of contact of the body with incline remain at rest.

Q.45 In-correct

Assertion: A small drop of mercury is spherical but bigger drops are oval in shape.
Reason: surface tension of liquid decreases with increase in temperature.

Assertion: A small drop of mercury is spherical but bigger drops are oval in shape.
Reason: surface tension of liquid decreases with increase in temperature.

Q.46 In-correct

Assertion: C_p can be less than C_V.
Reason C_p- C_V=R is valid only for ideal gases.

Assertion: C_p can be less than C_V.
Reason C_p- C_V=R is valid only for ideal gases.

Q.47 In-correct

Assertion: Bulk modulus of elasticity B represents incompressibility of the material.
Reason: B =

, where symbols have their usual meaning.

Assertion: Bulk modulus of elasticity B represents incompressibility of the material.
Reason: B =

, where symbols have their usual meaning.

Q.48 In-correct

Assertion: To float, a body must displace liquid whose weight is greater than actual weight of the body.
Reason: During floating the body will experience no net downward force in that case.

Assertion: To float, a body must displace liquid whose weight is greater than actual weight of the body.
Reason: During floating the body will experience no net downward force in that case.

Q.49 In-correct

Assertion: It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance of the side.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire conducts, more heat upward.

Assertion: It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance of the side.
Reason: Air surrounding the fire conducts, more heat upward.

Q.50 In-correct

Assertion: The molecules of a monatomic gas has three degree of freedom.
Reason: The molecules of a diatomic gas has five degree of freedom.

Assertion: The molecules of a monatomic gas has three degree of freedom.
Reason: The molecules of a diatomic gas has five degree of freedom.

Q.51 In-correct

Assertion: It is a stationary wave, there is no transfer of energy.
Reason: There is no outward motion of the disturbance from one particle to adjoin particles in a stationary wave.

Assertion: It is a stationary wave, there is no transfer of energy.
Reason: There is no outward motion of the disturbance from one particle to adjoin particles in a stationary wave.

Q.52 In-correct

Assertion: Though large number of free electrons are present in the metal. Yet there is no current in the absence of electric field.
Reason: In the absence of electric field electrons move randomly in all directions.

Assertion: Though large number of free electrons are present in the metal. Yet there is no current in the absence of electric field.
Reason: In the absence of electric field electrons move randomly in all directions.

Q.53 In-correct

Assertion: The value of temperature coefficient of resistance is positive is for metals.
Reason: The temperature coefficient of resistance for insulator is also positive.

Assertion: The value of temperature coefficient of resistance is positive is for metals.
Reason: The temperature coefficient of resistance for insulator is also positive.

Q.54 In-correct

Assertion: Magnetic field due to an infinite straight conductor varies inversely as the distance from it.
Reason: The magnetic field at the centre of the circular coil in the following figure is zero.

Assertion: Magnetic field due to an infinite straight conductor varies inversely as the distance from it.
Reason: The magnetic field at the centre of the circular coil in the following figure is zero.

Q.55 In-correct

Assertion: The resistance of an ideal voltmeter should be infinite.
Reason: The lower resistance of voltmeters gives a reading lower than the actual potential difference across the terminals.

Assertion: The resistance of an ideal voltmeter should be infinite.
Reason: The lower resistance of voltmeters gives a reading lower than the actual potential difference across the terminals.

Q.56 In-correct

Assertion: The centripetal forces and centrifugal forces never cancel out.
Reason: They do not act at the same time.

Assertion: The centripetal forces and centrifugal forces never cancel out.
Reason: They do not act at the same time.

Q.57 In-correct

Assertion: A quick collision between two bodies is more violent than a slow collision, even when the initial and final velocities are identical.
Reason: The momentum is greater in first case.

Assertion: A quick collision between two bodies is more violent than a slow collision, even when the initial and final velocities are identical.
Reason: The momentum is greater in first case.

Q.58 In-correct

Assertion: The length of day is slowly increasing.
Reason: The dominant effect causing a slowdown in the rotation of the earth is the gravitational pull of other planets in the solar system.

Assertion: The length of day is slowly increasing.
Reason: The dominant effect causing a slowdown in the rotation of the earth is the gravitational pull of other planets in the solar system.

Q.59 In-correct

Assertion: On a decay daughter nucleus shifts two places to the left from the parent nucleus.
Reason: An alpha particle carried four units of mass.

Assertion: On a decay daughter nucleus shifts two places to the left from the parent nucleus.
Reason: An alpha particle carried four units of mass.

Q.60 In-correct

Assertion: When base region has larger width, the collector current increases.
Reason: Electron hole combination in base result in increase of base current.

Assertion: When base region has larger width, the collector current increases.
Reason: Electron hole combination in base result in increase of base current.

Which of the following pair of transition metal ions have the same calculated values of magnetic moment?

Which of the following pair of transition metal ions have the same calculated values of magnetic moment?

A radioactive substance ₈₈X²²⁸ (IIA) emits 3α and 3β- particles to form ‘Y’. To which group of long form of the Periodic Table does ‘Y’ belong?

A radioactive substance ₈₈X²²⁸ (IIA) emits 3α and 3β- particles to form ‘Y’. To which group of long form of the Periodic Table does ‘Y’ belong?

Which of the following is not a conjugate acid-base pair?

Which of the following is not a conjugate acid-base pair?

Parkinson’s disease is linked to abnormalities in the levels of dopamine in the body. The structure of dopamine is

Parkinson’s disease is linked to abnormalities in the levels of dopamine in the body. The structure of dopamine is

The wavelength of a spectral line emitted by hydrogen atom in the Lyman series is

cm. What is the value of n₂?
(R = Rydberg constant)

The wavelength of a spectral line emitted by hydrogen atom in the Lyman series is

cm. What is the value of n₂?
(R = Rydberg constant)

138 g of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 72 g of water. The ratio of mole fraction of alcohol to water is

138 g of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 72 g of water. The ratio of mole fraction of alcohol to water is

Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?

Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?

In the above reactions ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are

In the above reactions ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are

Which one of the following noble gases is used in miner’s cap lamps?

Which one of the following noble gases is used in miner’s cap lamps?

Q.10 In-correct

The following are some statements related to VA group hydrides,
I. Reducing property increases from NH₃ to BiH₃
II. Tendency to donate lone pair decreases from NH₃ to BiH₃
III. Thermal stability of hybrids decreases from NH₃ to BiH₃
IV. Bond angle of hydrides decreases from NH₃ to BiH₃
The correct statements are

The following are some statements related to VA group hydrides,
I. Reducing property increases from NH₃ to BiH₃
II. Tendency to donate lone pair decreases from NH₃ to BiH₃
III. Thermal stability of hybrids decreases from NH₃ to BiH₃
IV. Bond angle of hydrides decreases from NH₃ to BiH₃
The correct statements are

Q.11 In-correct

Which of the following is not tetrahedral?

Which of the following is not tetrahedral?

Q.12 In-correct

An organic compound ‘X’ on treatment with pyridinium chloro chromate in dicholoromethane gives compound ‘Y’ Compound ‘Y’ reacts with I₂ and alkali to form triiodomethane. The compound ‘X’ is

An organic compound ‘X’ on treatment with pyridinium chloro chromate in dicholoromethane gives compound ‘Y’ Compound ‘Y’ reacts with I₂ and alkali to form triiodomethane. The compound ‘X’ is

Q.13 In-correct

Which of the following is not a peroxy acid?

Which of the following is not a peroxy acid?

Q.14 In-correct

Which of the following is not correct?

Which of the following is not correct?

Q.15 In-correct

Which one of the following species is diamagnetic in nature?

Which one of the following species is diamagnetic in nature?

Q.16 In-correct

Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000 °C to furnish aluminium metal (Atomic mass = 27 u; 1 F = 96500 C). The cathode reaction is
Al³⁺ + 3e^-→ Al⁰
To prepare 5.12 kg if aluminium metal by this method would require

Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000 °C to furnish aluminium metal (Atomic mass = 27 u; 1 F = 96500 C). The cathode reaction is
Al³⁺ + 3e^-→ Al⁰
To prepare 5.12 kg if aluminium metal by this method would require

Q.17 In-correct

The solubility product if a salt having general formula MX₂, in water is 4×10^-12. The concentration of M²⁺ ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is

The solubility product if a salt having general formula MX₂, in water is 4×10^-12. The concentration of M²⁺ ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is

Q.18 In-correct

A reaction involving two different reactants can never be

A reaction involving two different reactants can never be

Q.19 In-correct

During the process of electrolytic refining of copper, some metals present as impurity settle as ‘anode mud’. These are

During the process of electrolytic refining of copper, some metals present as impurity settle as ‘anode mud’. These are

Q.20 In-correct

Based on lattice energy and other considerations, which one of the following alkali metal chlorides is expected to have the highest melting point?

Based on lattice energy and other considerations, which one of the following alkali metal chlorides is expected to have the highest melting point?

Q.21 In-correct

Heating mixture of Cu₂O and Cu₂S will give

Heating mixture of Cu₂O and Cu₂S will give

Q.22 In-correct

A schematic plot of ln K_eq versus inverse of temperature for a reaction is shown below

The reaction must be

A schematic plot of ln K_eq versus inverse of temperature for a reaction is shown below

The reaction must be

Q.23 In-correct

Calomel (Hg₂Cl₂) on reaction with ammonium hydroxide gives

Calomel (Hg₂Cl₂) on reaction with ammonium hydroxide gives

Q.24 In-correct

The IUPAC name of the coordination compound K₃[Fe(CN)₆] is

The IUPAC name of the coordination compound K₃[Fe(CN)₆] is

Q.25 In-correct

Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?

Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?

Q.26 In-correct

The best reagent to convert pent-3-en-2-ol into pent-3-en-2-one is

The best reagent to convert pent-3-en-2-ol into pent-3-en-2-one is

Q.27 In-correct

A codon has a sequence of A and specifies a particular B that is to be incorporated into a C. What are? A, B, C

A codon has a sequence of A and specifies a particular B that is to be incorporated into a C. What are? A, B, C

Q.28 In-correct

Which of the following statement in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct?

Which of the following statement in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct?

Q.29 In-correct

p-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to give a compound A which adds hydrogen cyanide to form another compound B. This latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral carboxylic acid. The structure of the carboxylic acid is

p-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to give a compound A which adds hydrogen cyanide to form another compound B. This latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral carboxylic acid. The structure of the carboxylic acid is

Q.30 In-correct

If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X₂ and Y₂ (all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio of 1 : 1: 0.5 and ΔH_f for the formation of XY is -200 kJ mol^-1. The bond dissociation energy of X₂ will be

If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X₂ and Y₂ (all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio of 1 : 1: 0.5 and ΔH_f for the formation of XY is -200 kJ mol^-1. The bond dissociation energy of X₂ will be

Q.31 In-correct

t_1/4can be taken as the time taken for the concentration of a reactant to drop to

of its initial value. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the t_1/4 can be written as

t_1/4can be taken as the time taken for the concentration of a reactant to drop to

of its initial value. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the t_1/4 can be written as

Q.32 In-correct

The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of sodium ferrocyanide is

The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of sodium ferrocyanide is

Q.33 In-correct

In the given reaction, H₂O₂ acts as
Ag₂O+H₂O₂→2Ag+H₂O+O₂,

In the given reaction, H₂O₂ acts as
Ag₂O+H₂O₂→2Ag+H₂O+O₂,

Q.34 In-correct

Which of the following is used widely in the manufacture of lead storage battery?

Which of the following is used widely in the manufacture of lead storage battery?

Q.35 In-correct

Two solutions of a substance (non electrolyte) are mixed in the following manner: 480 mL of 1.5 M first solution +520 mL of 1.2 M second solution.
What is the molarity of the final mixture?

Two solutions of a substance (non electrolyte) are mixed in the following manner: 480 mL of 1.5 M first solution +520 mL of 1.2 M second solution.
What is the molarity of the final mixture?

Q.36 In-correct

The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between Kl and acidified potassium dichromate solution is

The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between Kl and acidified potassium dichromate solution is

Q.37 In-correct

The weight of iron which will be converted into its oxide (Fe₃O₄) by the action of 18 g of steam on it will be (At. Wt. of Fe=56)

The weight of iron which will be converted into its oxide (Fe₃O₄) by the action of 18 g of steam on it will be (At. Wt. of Fe=56)

Q.38 In-correct

Work done during isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from 10 atm to 1 atm at 300 K is

Work done during isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from 10 atm to 1 atm at 300 K is

Q.39 In-correct

When alkyl halide is heated with dry Ag₂O, it produces

When alkyl halide is heated with dry Ag₂O, it produces

Q.40 In-correct

How many atoms of calcium will be deposited from a solution of CaCl₂ by a current of 5 mA flowing for 60 s?

How many atoms of calcium will be deposited from a solution of CaCl₂ by a current of 5 mA flowing for 60 s?

Q.41 In-correct

is less acidic than

Reason: F exerts better + mesomeric effect than

is less acidic than

Reason: F exerts better + mesomeric effect than

Q.42 In-correct

Assertion: Phenoxide ion on treatment with active alkyl halide (e.g., CH₂=CH-CH₂Cl) gives two products viz. O-substituted and C-substituted.
Reason: Phenoxide ion is an ambident nucleophile.

Assertion: Phenoxide ion on treatment with active alkyl halide (e.g., CH₂=CH-CH₂Cl) gives two products viz. O-substituted and C-substituted.
Reason: Phenoxide ion is an ambident nucleophile.

Q.43 In-correct

Assertion: K, Rb and Cs form superoxides.
Reason: The stability of the superoxides increases from ‘K’ to ‘Cs’ due to decrease in lattice energy.

Assertion: K, Rb and Cs form superoxides.
Reason: The stability of the superoxides increases from ‘K’ to ‘Cs’ due to decrease in lattice energy.

Q.44 In-correct

Assertion: A catalyst increase the rate of a reaction.
Reason: In presence of a catalyst, the activation energy of the reaction decreases.

Assertion: A catalyst increase the rate of a reaction.
Reason: In presence of a catalyst, the activation energy of the reaction decreases.

Q.45 In-correct

Assertion: NaCl is less soluble in heavy water than in ordinary water.
Reason: Dielectric constant of ordinary water is more than that of heavy water.

Assertion: NaCl is less soluble in heavy water than in ordinary water.
Reason: Dielectric constant of ordinary water is more than that of heavy water.

Q.46 In-correct

Assertion: Equal moles of different substances contain same number of constituent particles.
Reason: Equal weights of different substances contain the same number of constituent particles.

Assertion: Equal moles of different substances contain same number of constituent particles.
Reason: Equal weights of different substances contain the same number of constituent particles.

Q.47 In-correct

Assertion: The catalytic converter in the car’s exhaust system converts polluting exhaust gases into non-toxic gases.
Reason: Catalytic converter contains a mixture of transition metals and their oxides embedded in the inner support.

Assertion: The catalytic converter in the car’s exhaust system converts polluting exhaust gases into non-toxic gases.
Reason: Catalytic converter contains a mixture of transition metals and their oxides embedded in the inner support.

Q.48 In-correct

Assertion: As a lead storage battery gets discharged density of electrolyte, present in it, decreases.
Reason: Lead and lead dioxide both react with sulphuric acid to form lead sulphate.

Assertion: As a lead storage battery gets discharged density of electrolyte, present in it, decreases.
Reason: Lead and lead dioxide both react with sulphuric acid to form lead sulphate.

Q.49 In-correct

Assertion: Atomic size of silver is almost equal to that of gold.
Reason: d-subshell has low penetration power and produce poor shielding.

Assertion: Atomic size of silver is almost equal to that of gold.
Reason: d-subshell has low penetration power and produce poor shielding.

Q.50 In-correct

Assertion: Higher the molal depression constant of the solvent used, higher the freezing point of the solution.
Reason: Depression in freezing point does not depend on the nature of the solvent.

Assertion: Higher the molal depression constant of the solvent used, higher the freezing point of the solution.
Reason: Depression in freezing point does not depend on the nature of the solvent.

Q.51 In-correct

Assertion: The dissolution of ammonia in water does not follow Henry’s law.
Reason: Ammonia undergoes ionisation in water as
NH₃ + H₂O

Assertion: The dissolution of ammonia in water does not follow Henry’s law.
Reason: Ammonia undergoes ionisation in water as
NH₃ + H₂O

Q.52 In-correct

Assertion: H₂ molecule is more stable than HeH molecule
Reason: The anti-bonding electron in the molecule destabilise it.

Assertion: H₂ molecule is more stable than HeH molecule
Reason: The anti-bonding electron in the molecule destabilise it.

Q.53 In-correct

Assertion: pH of neutral solution is always 7
Reason: pH of a solution does not depend upon temperature.

Assertion: pH of neutral solution is always 7
Reason: pH of a solution does not depend upon temperature.

Q.54 In-correct

Assertion: In chemisorptions, adsorption keeps on increasing with temperature.
Reason: Heat keeps on providing more and more activation energy.

Assertion: In chemisorptions, adsorption keeps on increasing with temperature.
Reason: Heat keeps on providing more and more activation energy.

Q.55 In-correct

Assertion The first ionisation enthalpy of Be is greater than that of B
Reason 2p-is lower in energy than 2s-orbital.

Assertion The first ionisation enthalpy of Be is greater than that of B
Reason 2p-is lower in energy than 2s-orbital.

Q.56 In-correct

Assertion: Nitriding is a process of heating steel in an atmosphere of nitrogen.
Reason: Steel becomes brittle after nitriding.

Assertion: Nitriding is a process of heating steel in an atmosphere of nitrogen.
Reason: Steel becomes brittle after nitriding.

Q.57 In-correct

Assertion: Both Grinard reagent and dialkyl cadmium react with acid chlorides to form tert-alcohols.
Reason: Grignard reagents are as reactive as dialkyl cadmium.

Assertion: Both Grinard reagent and dialkyl cadmium react with acid chlorides to form tert-alcohols.
Reason: Grignard reagents are as reactive as dialkyl cadmium.

Q.58 In-correct

Assertion: Methyl cyanide has higher boiling point than methyl isocyanide.
Reason: Dipole moment of methyl cyanide is higher than that of methyl isocyanide.

Assertion: Methyl cyanide has higher boiling point than methyl isocyanide.
Reason: Dipole moment of methyl cyanide is higher than that of methyl isocyanide.

Q.59 In-correct

Assertion: Aspirin can cause ulcer in the stomach.
Reason: The ester group in aspirin gets hydrolysed to acid group in the stomach where the pH is 2

Assertion: Aspirin can cause ulcer in the stomach.
Reason: The ester group in aspirin gets hydrolysed to acid group in the stomach where the pH is 2

Q.60 In-correct

Assertion: p-dichlorobenzene is less soluble in organic solvets than the corresponding o-isomer.
Reason: o-dichlorobenzene is polar while p-dichlorobenzene is not.

Assertion: p-dichlorobenzene is less soluble in organic solvets than the corresponding o-isomer.
Reason: o-dichlorobenzene is polar while p-dichlorobenzene is not.

Basis of life are

Basis of life are

Life span of parrot is

Life span of parrot is

Theory of ‘saltations’ was given by

Theory of ‘saltations’ was given by

The animal group which does not exist in Galapagos island is

The animal group which does not exist in Galapagos island is

Protists obtain their food as

Protists obtain their food as

Photosynthetic bacteria have

Photosynthetic bacteria have

Diatoms do not decay easily because

Diatoms do not decay easily because

One of these protozoans is threat to apiculture and sericulture

One of these protozoans is threat to apiculture and sericulture

Ergotamine tartarate extracted from Claviceps, is used for cure of

Ergotamine tartarate extracted from Claviceps, is used for cure of

Q.10 In-correct

What type of sorus is present in Nephrolepis?

What type of sorus is present in Nephrolepis?

Q.11 In-correct

Pappus helps in dispersal of pollen in

Pappus helps in dispersal of pollen in

Q.12 In-correct

In which of the following groups are seeds present?

In which of the following groups are seeds present?

Q.13 In-correct

Match the columns.
Column I
(Vitamins)
A) B₁
B) D
C) E
D) C
Column II
(Deficiency disease)
1) Infertility
2) Scurvy
3) Beri-Beri
4) Bone formity

Match the columns.
Column I
(Vitamins)
A) B₁
B) D
C) E
D) C
Column II
(Deficiency disease)
1) Infertility
2) Scurvy
3) Beri-Beri
4) Bone formity

Q.14 In-correct

One of the following is a connecting link between protozoans and poriferans

One of the following is a connecting link between protozoans and poriferans

Q.15 In-correct

The chordate features shared by the non-chordates are

The chordate features shared by the non-chordates are

Q.16 In-correct

Which of the following ions are necessary for assembly of microtubules?

Which of the following ions are necessary for assembly of microtubules?

Q.17 In-correct

If T = 40%, C = 10% then G = ? in a pollen cell

If T = 40%, C = 10% then G = ? in a pollen cell

Q.18 In-correct

Nickel contributes to the formation of which one of the following?

Nickel contributes to the formation of which one of the following?

Q.19 In-correct

If a stock has 2n =48 and scion microspore mother cell has 2n = 24; then root cell and the microspores will have ….chromosomes respectively.

If a stock has 2n =48 and scion microspore mother cell has 2n = 24; then root cell and the microspores will have ….chromosomes respectively.

Q.20 In-correct

The percentage of cell surface that is impenetrable for ions is

The percentage of cell surface that is impenetrable for ions is

Q.21 In-correct

A fertilized egg of a plant has 40 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes present in the microspore mother cell is

A fertilized egg of a plant has 40 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes present in the microspore mother cell is

Q.22 In-correct

Match the columns.
Column I
(Scientists)
A) Stephan Hales
B) Ingen Housz
C) Von Mohl
D) Sach
Column II
(Discoveries)
1) Importance of light and chlorophyll
2) Presence of chlorophyll In plants
3) Product of Photosynthesis is starch
4) Air and light control

Match the columns.
Column I
(Scientists)
A) Stephan Hales
B) Ingen Housz
C) Von Mohl
D) Sach
Column II
(Discoveries)
1) Importance of light and chlorophyll
2) Presence of chlorophyll In plants
3) Product of Photosynthesis is starch
4) Air and light control

Q.23 In-correct

Genotypic and phenotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1 in the offsprings explain the principle of

Genotypic and phenotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1 in the offsprings explain the principle of

Q.24 In-correct

Satellite of chromosome is

Satellite of chromosome is

Q.25 In-correct

Sickle cell anaemia is an example of

Sickle cell anaemia is an example of

Q.26 In-correct

Translocase is an enzyme required for

Translocase is an enzyme required for

Q.27 In-correct

Feathery stigma belongs to

Feathery stigma belongs to

Q.28 In-correct

Inflorescence of Liliaceae is

Inflorescence of Liliaceae is

Q.29 In-correct

Bone marrow is absent in

Bone marrow is absent in

Q.30 In-correct

The property of semipermeability belongs to

The property of semipermeability belongs to

Q.31 In-correct

Translocation of photosynthetic end products in sieve tubes is

Translocation of photosynthetic end products in sieve tubes is

Q.32 In-correct

Epidermis is specialized for

Epidermis is specialized for

Q.33 In-correct

The pH of stomach is 1.6, then which enzyme will digest protein?

The pH of stomach is 1.6, then which enzyme will digest protein?

Q.34 In-correct

The normal type of embryo sac is 8-nucleated and

The normal type of embryo sac is 8-nucleated and

Q.35 In-correct

Q.36 In-correct

The type of immunoglobulin present in the foetus are

The type of immunoglobulin present in the foetus are

Q.37 In-correct

For better survival of human Indian population, which is the most important step?

For better survival of human Indian population, which is the most important step?

Q.38 In-correct

Leukaemia is cause by

Leukaemia is cause by

Q.39 In-correct

Q.40 In-correct

An autoimmune disease is

An autoimmune disease is

Q.41 In-correct

Assertion: In alcoholic drink, the alcohol is converted into glucose in liver.
Reason: Liver cells are able to produce glucose from alcohol by back fermentations.

Assertion: In alcoholic drink, the alcohol is converted into glucose in liver.
Reason: Liver cells are able to produce glucose from alcohol by back fermentations.

Q.42 In-correct

Assertion: Wrapping food with newspaper can be dangerous.
Reason: It is rich in cadmium which is toxic to health.

Assertion: Wrapping food with newspaper can be dangerous.
Reason: It is rich in cadmium which is toxic to health.

Q.43 In-correct

Assertion: Tertiary consumers are green plants.
Reason: Microconsumers break down the dead protoplasm into simpler ones. They are last in the sequence of food chain.

Assertion: Tertiary consumers are green plants.
Reason: Microconsumers break down the dead protoplasm into simpler ones. They are last in the sequence of food chain.

Q.44 In-correct

Assertion: In a graafian follicle, the primary oocyte and the follicle cells may be considered sibling cells.
Reason: Both are derived from oogonia.

Assertion: In a graafian follicle, the primary oocyte and the follicle cells may be considered sibling cells.
Reason: Both are derived from oogonia.

Q.45 In-correct

Assertion: Old ladies are prone to osteoporosis.
Reason: Oestrogen also maintain calcium balance in the bones and blood.

Assertion: Old ladies are prone to osteoporosis.
Reason: Oestrogen also maintain calcium balance in the bones and blood.

Q.46 In-correct

Assertion: Phylloclades are adaptation for xerophytic habitats.
Reason: Ruscus, Casuarina have reduced or modified leaves to avoid transpiration.

Assertion: Phylloclades are adaptation for xerophytic habitats.
Reason: Ruscus, Casuarina have reduced or modified leaves to avoid transpiration.

Q.47 In-correct

Assertion: In the hydrophytes, the xylem is not differentiated into different types of cells.
Reason: Xylem provides support and helps in the conduction of water which are not very important in hydrophytes.

Assertion: In the hydrophytes, the xylem is not differentiated into different types of cells.
Reason: Xylem provides support and helps in the conduction of water which are not very important in hydrophytes.

Q.48 In-correct

Assertion: Gene expression is a molecular mechanism by which a gene expresses a phenotype.
Reason: Structural genes are controlled by control genes.

Assertion: Gene expression is a molecular mechanism by which a gene expresses a phenotype.
Reason: Structural genes are controlled by control genes.

Q.49 In-correct

Assertion: Neurohypophysis is situated in the cells of stomach.
Reason: Neurohypophysis releases vasopressin and oxytocin.

Assertion: Neurohypophysis is situated in the cells of stomach.
Reason: Neurohypophysis releases vasopressin and oxytocin.

Q.50 In-correct

Assertion: Cataract is the condition on which lens become completely opaque.
Reason: In the condition, a person can see only near objects.

Assertion: Cataract is the condition on which lens become completely opaque.
Reason: In the condition, a person can see only near objects.

Q.51 In-correct

Assertion: Sinus venosus is a thin walled sac with little muscular tissue in primitive heart.
Reason: It receives venous blood through the hepatic veins.

Assertion: Sinus venosus is a thin walled sac with little muscular tissue in primitive heart.
Reason: It receives venous blood through the hepatic veins.

Q.52 In-correct

Assertion: B-cells (Beta cells) account for about 80% of the total number of islet cells.
Reason: They secrete a hormone called thyroxine.

Assertion: B-cells (Beta cells) account for about 80% of the total number of islet cells.
Reason: They secrete a hormone called thyroxine.

Q.53 In-correct

Assertion: Monotropa grows in pine forests with the roots of pines.
Reason: Saprophytes obtain their nutrition from dead organic matter.

Assertion: Monotropa grows in pine forests with the roots of pines.
Reason: Saprophytes obtain their nutrition from dead organic matter.

Q.54 In-correct

Assertion: outermost layer of the bone is a fibrous connective tissue.
Reason: Matrix of bone is composed of protein ossein.

Assertion: outermost layer of the bone is a fibrous connective tissue.
Reason: Matrix of bone is composed of protein ossein.

Q.55 In-correct

Assertion: Perennials live for many years.
Reason: Their life cycle do not end with seed production.

Assertion: Perennials live for many years.
Reason: Their life cycle do not end with seed production.

Q.56 In-correct

Assertion: ‘Reindeer moss’ is used by reindeer, caribou and other animals as fodder.
Reason: Reindeer moss is found in rainforests.

Assertion: ‘Reindeer moss’ is used by reindeer, caribou and other animals as fodder.
Reason: Reindeer moss is found in rainforests.

Q.57 In-correct

Assertion: TMV is a rod-shaped virus.
Reason: It is made up of a protein coat and RNA.

Assertion: TMV is a rod-shaped virus.
Reason: It is made up of a protein coat and RNA.

Q.58 In-correct

Assertion: Japanese prepare a popular vegetable ‘Kombu’ prepared from Laminaria.
Reason: Laminaria is a fungus.

Assertion: Japanese prepare a popular vegetable ‘Kombu’ prepared from Laminaria.
Reason: Laminaria is a fungus.

Q.59 In-correct

Assertion: Mesophytes show well-developed root system.
Reason: Mesophytes depend on the moderate supply of water which they draw from their root.

Assertion: Mesophytes show well-developed root system.
Reason: Mesophytes depend on the moderate supply of water which they draw from their root.

Q.60 In-correct

Assertion: Lichens are the plants growing perched on other plants.
Reason: Lichens unitedly make the association with algae and fungi and show mutualism.

Assertion: Lichens are the plants growing perched on other plants.
Reason: Lichens unitedly make the association with algae and fungi and show mutualism.

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