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SSC MTS 2024 GS Test - 9
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SSC MTS 2024 GS Test - 9
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  • Question 1/10
    3 / -0

    Which among the following is not an example of diversity but inequality?

    Solutions

    The correct option is 'Difference of economic status'.

    Key Points

    • Diversity refers to the representation of different types of individuals and groups in a social system, such as a country or an organization.
    • It encompasses many aspects of difference, including but not limited to race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, age, physical abilities, religion, political beliefs, or other ideologies.
    • In the context of your question, difference of religion, difference of mother tongue, and difference of food habits are examples of diversity because these are elements that can vary widely among individuals without implying any inherent hierarchy or value judgement.
    • On the other hand, inequality refers to uneven distribution or disparities of resources, rights, and opportunities among different groups in society.
    • Economic status is one of the most significant areas where inequality can be observed.
    • The difference in economic status often leads to unequal access to resources and opportunities, which can perpetuate cycles of poverty and wealth.
    • Economic inequality can result in some people having a higher standard of living, better opportunities for education, and greater overall life chances than others.
  • Question 2/10
    3 / -0

    Creation of a new state requires a majority for Constitutional Amendment.

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Simple.

    Key Points

    • The creation of a new state requires a simple majority for Constitutional Amendment.
    • Constitutional Amendment:
      • Like any other written Constitution in the world, the Constitution of India also provides for its amendment in order to adjust itself according to the changing conditions and needs.
      • Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.
      • It states that the Parliament may amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeals any provision in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose.
      • However, the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
      • This was ruled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

    Additional Information

    • First Amendment Act, 1951:
      • Empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and economically backward classes.
      • Provided for the saving of laws providing for the acquisition of estates, etc.
      • Added Ninth Schedule to protect the land reforms and other laws included in it from the judicial review. After Article 31, Articles 31A and 31B were inserted.
    • Seventh Amendment Act, 1956:
      • The second and Seventh Schedules were amended.
      • Abolished the existing classification of states into four categories i.e., Part A, Part B, Part C, and Part D states, and reorganised them into 14 states and 6 union territories.
      • Extended the jurisdiction of high courts to union territories.
      • Provided for the establishment of a common high court for two or more states.
      • Provided for the appointment of additional and acting judges of the high court.
    • Forty Second Amendment Act, 1976:
      • Added three new words (i.e., socialist, secular and integrity) in the Preamble.
      • Added Fundamental Duties by the citizens (new Part IV A).
      • Made the president bound by the advice of the cabinet.
      • Provided for administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters (Added Part XIV A).
      • Froze the seats in the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies on the basis of 1971 census till 2001 – Population Controlling Measure.
    • Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978:
      • Restored the original term of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies (i.e., 5 years).
      • Restored the provisions with regard to the quorum in the Parliament and state legislatures.
      • Omitted the reference to the British House of Commons in the provisions pertaining to the parliamentary privileges.
      • Gave constitutional protection to publication in a newspaper of true reports of the proceedings of the Parliament and the state legislatures.
    • One Hundred Third Amendment Act, 2019:
      • It introduced reservations for Economic Weaker Section for the first time in independent India
      • Amendment in Article 16 allows a 10% reservation to EWS in public employment.
  • Question 3/10
    3 / -0

    One of the following options is incorrect about loamy soil. Which is that?

    Solutions

    The Correct answer is It does not hold air.

    Explanation:

    • Loamy soil does hold air in addition to its other properties. Loamy soil is considered the best type of soil for plant growth because it has a balanced mixture of sand, clay, and silt.
    • The air spaces within the soil are crucial for plant roots to access oxygen, which is necessary for their respiration.
    • A mixture of sand, clay, and silt: Loamy soil is a well-balanced combination of sand, clay, and silt. This composition provides good drainage while retaining enough moisture for plant roots.
    • Presence of humus: Loamy soil contains organic matter, including humus, which is the decomposed remains of plants and animals. Humus enhances soil fertility and improves its water-holding capacity.
    • Water-holding capacity: Loamy soil has good water-holding capacity due to the presence of silt and clay particles. It can retain moisture for plant roots without becoming waterlogged.
    • Air-holding capacity: Loamy soil also has adequate air spaces between its particles. These air spaces allow oxygen to reach plant roots, promoting healthy root growth and respiration.
  • Question 4/10
    3 / -0

    Which among the following dance forms of India is associated with Odisha?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Chhau.

    Key Points

    • Chhau dance:-
      • It is a traditional dance form performed by men from Eastern India that enacts episodes from epics including Ramayana and Mahabharata. 
      • The main objective of this dance form is to celebrate martial arts.
      • Chhau dance can be classified into three divisions based on the place it is performed; Mayurbhanj Chau of Odisha, Seraikella Chau of Jharkhand, and Purulia Chau of Bengal.
      •  Chhau dance is intimately connected to regional festivals, notably the spring festival Chaitra Parva.

    Additional Information

    • Kathak:- 
      • Kathak classical dance originated in Uttar Pradesh, specifically in the courts of the Mughal emperors in the 16th century.
      • The dance form combines elements of Hindu and Muslim cultures, and is known for its intricate footwork, graceful hand gestures, and facial expressions.
    • Bhangra:-
      • Bhangra is a lively and vibrant form of folk dance and music that originated from Punjab, a region in Northern India and Eastern Pakistan.
      • It traditionally celebrates the harvest season and the arrival of Vaisakhi.
    • Ghumar:-
      • Ghumar, also known as Ghoomar, is a traditional folk dance originating from the Indian state of Rajasthan.
      • The dance is primarily performed by women and is known for its graceful movements and vibrant attire.
  • Question 5/10
    3 / -0

    In which year famous Gandhi-Irwin pact took place?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is 1931 AD.

    Key Points

    • The Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed in 1931.
    • The Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and the then Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin on March 5, 1931.
    • The features of the Gandhi-Irwin pact:
    • Congress would participate in the Second Round Table Conference.
    • Congress would discontinue the Civil Disobedience Movement.
    • The Government would withdraw all ordinances issued to curb Congress.
    • The Government would withdraw all prosecutions relating to offences other than violent ones.
    • The Government would release all persons undergoing sentences of imprisonment for their activities in the civil disobedience movement.
  • Question 6/10
    3 / -0

    Disinvestment in Public Sector is called

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Privatization.

    Key Points

    • Disinvestment in India is a policy of the Government of India, wherein the Government liquidates its assets in the Public sector Enterprises partially or fully.
    • The decision to disinvest is mainly to reduce the fiscal burden and bridge the government's revenue shortfall.

    Important Points

    1. Privatization is considered to bring more efficiency and objectivity to the company, something that a government company is not concerned about.
    2. India went for privatization in the historic reforms budget of 1991, also known as the 'New Economic Policy or LPG policy'.
    3. The transfer of ownership, property, or business from the government to the private sector is termed privatization. The government ceases to be the owner of the entity or business.
    4. The process in which a few people take over a publicly-traded company is also called privatization. The company's stock is no longer traded in the stock market and the general public is barred from holding a stake in such a company.

    Additional Information

    1. Globalization, or globalization, is the process of interaction and integration among people, companies, and governments worldwide. 
    2. liberalization, the loosening of government controls. Although sometimes associated with the relaxation of laws relating to social matters such as abortion and divorce, liberalization is most often used as an economic term.
    3. Industrialization is the transformation of a society from agrarian to a manufacturing or industrial economy.
  • Question 7/10
    3 / -0

    Fiscal policy is related to which of the following?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Related to the revenue and expenditure policy of the government.

    Key Points

    • Fiscal policy is the means by which a government adjusts its spending levels and tax rates to monitor and influence a nation's economy. It is the sister strategy to monetary policy through which a central bank influences a nation's money supply.
    • Fiscal policy deals with the taxation and expenditure decisions of the government. Some of the major instruments of fiscal policy are as follows: Budget, Taxation, Public Expenditure, public revenue, Public Debt, and Fiscal Deficit in the economy.

    Additional Information

    • General objectives of Fiscal Policy are given below:
      • To maintain and achieve full employment.
      • To stabilize the price level.
      • To stabilize the growth rate of the economy.
      • To maintain equilibrium in the Balance of Payments.
      • To promote the economic development of underdeveloped countries.
    • The fiscal policy of India always has two objectives, namely improving the growth performance of the economy and ensuring social justice to the people.
  • Question 8/10
    3 / -0

    Who has been appointed as Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) in February, 2024?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is A S Rajeev.

    In News

    • A S Rajeev has been appointed as Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) by President Droupadi Murmu.

    Key Points

    • Prior to this role, Rajeev served as the Managing Director & CEO of Bank of Maharashtra, a public sector bank.
    • Last week, Rajeev voluntarily opted to retire from his position at Bank of Maharashtra.
    • The appointment of Rajeev fills one of the two Vigilance Commissioner positions in the CVC.
    • The other members of the CVC are Praveen Kumar Srivastava, who serves as the Central Vigilance Commissioner since May 2023, and Arvinda Kumar, who has been a Vigilance Commissioner since August 2022.
  • Question 9/10
    3 / -0

    What is the minimum amount of land required for sector specific SEZs?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is 50 hectares.

    Key Points

    • Special Economic Zones (SEZs):-
      • An SEZ is an enclave within a country that is typically duty-free and has different business and commercial laws chiefly to encourage investment and create employment.
      • In this zone, industries get some tax advantages.
    • The amount of land that the proposal requires will determine what type of SEZ it will be. The different types are:
      • Multi-sector SEZ - Requires a minimum of 500 hectares of land.
      • Sector-specific SEZ - Requires a minimum of 50 hectares of land.
      • Free Trade and Warehousing Zone (FTWZ)- Requires a minimum of 40 hectares of land.
      • IT / handicrafts / bio-technology / non-conventional energy/gems and jewelry SEZ- Requires a minimum of 10 hectares of land.
  • Question 10/10
    3 / -0

    Which of the following soil types becomes less fertile due to the intense leaching caused by tropical rains?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Laterite soils.

    Key Points

    • Laterite soil is rich in iron oxide and derived from a variety of rocks weathering under strongly oxidizing and leaching conditions.
    • Laterite soil forms in tropical and subtropical regions where the climate is humid
    • It contains the iron oxide minerals goethitelepidocrocite, and hematite.
    • Laterite soils contain titanium oxides and hydrated oxides of aluminum.
    • The aluminum-rich in laterite soil representative of laterite is bauxite
    • Laterite soil has commonly found in the colors red, yellow, and brown.
    • In India, laterite soil is widespread, covering over 10% of the total geographical area.
    • It is found in Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand.

    Important Points

    Additional Information

    Red soils
    • Red soil contains a high percentage of iron content which is responsible for its color.
    • This soil is deficient in nitrogenhumusphosphoric acidmagnesium, and lime but fairly rich in potash, with its pH ranging from neutral to acidic.
    • Red soils generally form from iron-rich sedimentary rock. They are usually poor growing soilslow in nutrients and humus, and difficult to cultivate.
    Yellow soils
    • A yellow soil was formed under broad-leaved forests. It is chiefly on parent material from clayey shales.
    • Yellow soil has an acid reaction and low humus content, and its yellow color is caused by the presence of ferric hydroxide.
    • There are 4 types of yellow earth that may be distinguished:
      • Yellow soil.
      • Yellow podzolic soil.
      • Yellow gley soil.
      • Yellow podzolic gley soil.
    Black soils
    • The black soils found in the lava-covered areas.
    • Black Soil also called Lava Soil.
    • Those soils are often referred to as regur but are popularly known as black cotton soils since cotton has been the most common traditional crop in areas where they are found.
    • Black soils are trap lava and are spread mostly across interior GujaratMaharashtraKarnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau, where there is both moderate rainfall and underlying basaltic rock.
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