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General Study Test 229
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General Study Test 229
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  • Question 1/10
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    Which article of the constitution mentions that "No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be witness against himself"?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is 20 (3).

    Key Points

    • Article 20 (3) of the constitution mentions that "No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be witness against himself".
    • Article 20 (3) protects the accused person from self-incrimination.

    Additional Information

    • Article 23(2) in The Constitution Of India 1949
      • (2) Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purpose, and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them.
    • As per Article 19(5), the right to freedom of movement and residence could be restricted on the following grounds: In the interests of the general public, or. For the protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe.
    • Article 22(4): No law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless—[44th Constitutional Amendment 1978].
  • Question 2/10
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    Which of the following compounds is NOT likely to form an ionic bond?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is CO2.

    Key Points

    • Ionic bonds occur when there is a complete transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
    • This usually happens between a metal and a nonmetal atom.
    • The atom that loses an electron becomes a positively charged cation, and the atom that gains an electron becomes a negatively charged anion.
    • The oppositely charged ions are attracted to each other, forming an ionic bond.
    • Carbon Dioxide consists of one Carbon atom (a nonmetal) and two Oxygen atoms (also a nonmetal).
    • In this molecule, the Carbon atom shares electrons with the Oxygen atoms, forming covalent bonds. Therefore, CO2 does not form an ionic bond.
       

    Additional Information

     NaCl (Sodium Chloride):

    • Sodium Chloride is formed by an ionic bond.
    • Sodium (a metal) donates an electron to Chlorine (a nonmetal), forming a positively charged Sodium ion and a negatively charged Chloride ion.
    • The electrostatic attraction between these oppositely charged ions forms the ionic bond.

    MgO (Magnesium Oxide):

    • Magnesium Oxide is also formed by an ionic bond.
    • Magnesium (a metal) donates two electrons to Oxygen (a nonmetal), forming a positively charged Magnesium ion and a negatively charged Oxide ion.
    • The attraction between these ions forms the ionic bond.

    KI (Potassium Iodide):

    • Potassium Iodide is formed by an ionic bond as well.
    • Potassium (a metal) donates an electron to Iodine (a nonmetal), forming a positively charged Potassium ion and a negatively charged Iodide ion.
    • The ionic bond is formed due to the attraction between these ions.
  • Question 3/10
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    ___________ is the deepest landlocked and well-protected port.

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Vishakhapatnam.

    Key Points

    • The deepest landlocked and well-protected port is Vishakhapatnam, which is located on the east coast of India in the state of Andhra Pradesh. Vishakhapatnam Port is one of the major ports in India and is known for its deep draft and natural harbour.
    • It has a depth of around 17.5 meters, making it one of India's deepest ports.
    •  The port is well-protected from natural calamities like cyclones and tsunamis, as it is surrounded by hills on three sides and the Bay of Bengal on the fourth side.
    • This geographical location provides natural protection to the port and makes it a safe harbour for ships.
    • Vishakhapatnam port is strategically located on India's east coast, making it an ideal port for trade with countries in Southeast Asia, Australia, and the Middle East.
    • It is also well-connected to the rest of India through a network of highways and railways.
    • The port has modern infrastructure and facilities for handling various types of cargo, including containers, crude oil, iron ore, coal, and fertilizers. It also has a dedicated berth for handling liquefied natural gas (LNG) and is the first port in India to have such a facility.

    Additional Information

    • Kandla Port is located on the west coast of India in the state of Gujarat.
      • It is the largest port in India in terms of volume of cargo handled. It mainly handles dry cargo like salt, crude oil, and chemicals.
    • Mumbai Port is also located on the west coast of India in the state of Maharashtra.
      • It is one of the oldest and busiest ports in India. It mainly handles container traffic and is also a major center for shipbuilding and repair.
    •  Paradwip Port is located on the east coast of India in the state of Odisha
      • . It is a major port for the export of iron ore and other minerals. It also has facilities for handling coal and other bulk cargo.
  • Question 4/10
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    Which of the following pairs of 'Physics – Principle' is correct?

    I. Newton's Third Law – Equal and opposite force

    II. Archimedes' Principle – Speed of light

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Only I.

    Key Points

    • I. Newton's Third Law – Equal and opposite force
      • Newton's Third Law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
      • This means that any force exerted on a body will create a force of equal magnitude but in the opposite direction on the object that exerted the first force.

    Hence statement I correct.

    • II. Archimedes' Principle – Speed of light
      • Archimedes' Principle is not related to the speed of light.
      • Archimedes' Principle states that the upward buoyant force exerted on a body immersed in a fluid, whether fully or partially submerged, is equal to the weight of the fluid that the body displaces.
      • The speed of light, on the other hand, is a fundamental constant of nature and forms the basis of Einstein's theory of relativity.

    Hence statement II incorrect.

     

  • Question 5/10
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    If we sum the gross value added of all the firms of the economy in a year, we get a measure of the value of aggregate amount of goods and services produced by the economy in a year. Such an estimate is called ________.

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Gross domestic product.

    Key Points

    • Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a measure of the total value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific period, usually a year.
    • It is calculated by summing up the value of all final goods and services produced in the economy, including consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports.
    • GDP is an important indicator of the health of an economy, as it reflects the level of economic activity.
    • GDP can be used to compare the performance of different countries or regions.
    • National Income at Factor Cost (NIFC) is the total income earned by all factors of production in an economy, including wages, salaries, rent, interest, and profits.
    • Net Value Added (NVA) is the value of output produced by a firm after deducting the cost of intermediate inputs, such as raw materials and energy.
    • Net National Product (NNP) is the total value of all goods and services produced by the citizens of a country, including those produced abroad, minus the depreciation of capital goods.

    Additional Information

    • National Income at Factor Cost (NIFC) is calculated by deducting indirect taxes and adding subsidies from GDP.
    • Net Value Added (NVA) is a measure of the contribution made by a firm to the economy, and it is calculated by subtracting the value of intermediate inputs from the total value of output.
    • Net National Product (NNP) is calculated by deducting depreciation from Gross National Product (GNP), which is the total value of all goods and services produced by the citizens of a country, including those produced abroad. 
    • In the given question, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the correct answer as it is a measure of the total value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific period.
  • Question 6/10
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    Which of the following statement is correct?

    1. Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of the atomic nucleus.

    2. Isotopes are atoms of the same element, which have different mass numbers.

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

    Key Points

    Rutherford’s scattering experiment:

    • In this experiment, the scattering of particles is explained with the concept of coulombs interaction between the atoms.
    • He shows that in the middle of the atom, highly dense particles are present in the center of the atom, which is named the nucleus. 
    • So, from the scattering experiment, the credit for the discovery of the nucleus goes to the scientist named Rutherford in the year 1911.
    • In the nucleus, concentrated charged particles are present, they are protons and neutrons. 
    • Thus, Rutherford’s scattering experiment led to the discovery of the nucleus in the atom.

    Isotopes

    • Isotopes are atoms of the same element; they have the same atomic number but different mass numbers.
    • Isotopes have a different number of neutrons in their nucleus. 
    • Hence, both statements are correct.
  • Question 7/10
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    What does ‘Chaitya’ in Buddhist architecture refer to?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Prayer hall.

    Key Points

    •  Buddhist Architecture is primarily represented by three prominent building types:
      • The Chaitya Hall (Place Of Worship or Prayer hall)
      • The Vihara (Monastery)
      • The Stupa (Hemispherical Mound For Worship/Memory)
    • Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks.
    • Both early Chaityas and Viharas were made from woods and later stone-cut Chaityas and Viharas were made.
    • Chaitya was a rectangular prayer hall with a stupa placed in the centre, the purpose was prayer.
    • The Chaitya was divided into three parts and had an apsidal ending, that is, a semicircular rear end.
    • The central part of the hall (also called the nave) was separated from the two aisles by two rows of pillars.
    • The chaityas also had polished interior walls, semicircular roofs and horse-shoe-shaped windows called the Chaitya windows.
    • Viharas were the residences of the monks.
    • ​Distinctive Buddhist architectural structures and sculptures like Stupas, Pagodas, caves, and monasteries
    • Being the spiritual symbols of Buddhism, these structures are monastic or holy places
    • They also serve as a sacred land that has the power to purify one’s soul.
  • Question 8/10
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    In India, palm, coconut, keora, agar are the common trees of which of the following forests?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Mangrove Forests

    Key Points

    Mangrove Forests

    • Found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides. Mud and silt get accumulated on such coasts.
    • Dense mangroves are the common varieties with roots of the plants submerged underwater.
    • The deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishana, the Godavari, and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation.
    • In the Ganga Brahmaputra delta, Sundari trees are found, which provide durable hard timber.
    • Palm, coconut, keora, agar, also grow in some parts of the delta.
    • Royal Bengal Tiger is the famous animal in these forests. Turtles, crocodiles, gharials, and snakes are also found in these forests.

    Additional Information

    Tropical Evergreen Forests:

    • These forests are restricted to heavy rainfall areas of the Western Ghats and the island groups of Lakshadweep, Andaman, and Nicobar, upper parts of Assam, and Tamil Nadu coast.
    • They are at their best in areas having more than 200 cm of rainfall with a short dry season.
    • The trees reach great heights up to 60 meters or even above.
    • Since the region is warm and wet throughout the year, it has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds.
    • The trees, shrubs, and creepers give it a multilayered structure.
    • There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves.
    • As such, these forests appear green all the year-round

    Tropical Deciduous Forests

    • ​These are the most widespread forests of India.
    • They are also called the monsoon forests and spread over the region receiving rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm.
    • Trees of this forest type shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in dry summer.
    • On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous.

    Natural vegetation refers to a plant community, which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time. The following major types of vegetation may be identified in our country

    1. Tropical Evergreen Forests
    2. Tropical Deciduous Forests
    3. Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs
    4. Montane Forests
    5. Mangrove Forests
  • Question 9/10
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    What is the theme of National Black HIV/AIDS Awareness Day (NBHAAD) 2024?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is Engage, Educate, Empower: Uniting to End HIV/AIDS in Black Communities

    In News

    • National Black HIV/AIDS Awareness Day: 7th February.

    Key Points

    • National Black HIV/AIDS Awareness Day (NBHAAD) is observed on February 7 each year since 1999.
    • The theme for NBHAAD 2024 is "Engage, Educate, Empower: Uniting to End HIV/AIDS in Black Communities."
    • This theme highlights the importance of involving the black community in HIV/AIDS prevention and treatment efforts.
    • It emphasizes the need for education about HIV/AIDS among black youth and adults, covering topics such as treatment options and debunking myths.
    • Additionally, the theme focuses on empowering black individuals living with HIV/AIDS through advocacy, policy change, and access to care and support systems.
  • Question 10/10
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    Indian Standard Time (IST) is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) by ______.

    Solutions

    The correct answer is 5 hours 30 minutes.

    Key Points

    • Indian Standard Time (IST) is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) by 5 hours 30 minutes.
    • IST is calculated based on the 82.5°E longitude, which passes through Mirzapur, near Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh.
    • The city of Mirzapur, Uttar Pradesh, is situated on the longitude reference line of 82.5°E, making it the reference point for calculating Indian Standard Time.
    • The CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (NPL) in New Delhi is responsible for maintaining and recording time in India. It utilizes five caesium atomic clocks for accurate timekeeping.

    Additional Information

    • Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)
      • It is a time standard based on the location of the prime meridian at the Royal Observatory in Greenwich, London, England.
      • GMT serves as the basis for the division of the world into different time zones. It is used as a reference point to determine the time offset in relation to the prime meridian.
      • GMT is often used interchangeably with Coordinated Universal Time (UTC). UTC is a more precise and scientifically accurate time standard that incorporates leap seconds to account for Earth's irregular rotation.
      • GMT was historically used as the international civil time standard, particularly during the era of maritime navigation. It allowed for uniformity in timekeeping across different regions of the world.
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