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CDS I 2025 GK Test - 6
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CDS I 2025 GK Test - 6
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  • Question 1/10
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    When did the Bhopal Gas tragedy happened?

    Solutions

    Key Points

    • Bhopal Gas Tragedy:
      • It happened on December 3, 1984.
      • It was happened due to leakage of Methyl Isocyanate (CH3NCO) from the pesticide plant of Union Carbide (now Dow Chemicals), an MNC, in Madhya Pradesh capital Bhopal.
      • It is estimated that about 40 tonnes of gas and other chemicals leaked from the Union Carbide factory.
      • Methyl isocyanate is an extremely toxic gas and if its concentration in the air touches 21ppm (parts per million), it can cause death within minutes of inhaling the gas.
      • It is one of the worst chemical disasters globally and still continues to have its ill effects on the people of the affected areas.
      • After the tragedy, the government of India enacted a Public Liability Insurance Act (1991) that meant to provide immediate relief to victims of accidents involving hazardous industries. 
        • Under the Act, an environment relief fund was set up to compensate affected people.
  • Question 2/10
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    Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of 'Green India Mission' of the Government of India?

    1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the 'green accounting'.

    2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future.

    3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Solutions

    The correct answer is 3 only.

    • Green India Mission:
      • It was launched in 2014.
      • It is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
      • Its objective is to respond to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.
      • It is aimed at protecting, restoring, and enhancing India's diminishing forest cover. Hence statement 3 is correct.
      • Its one of the main objectives is to enhance annual CO2 sequestration by 50-60 million tonnes by 2020.
    • Statements 1 and 2 are irrelevant to the mission.
  • Question 3/10
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    Where did the 43rd World Medical & Health Games take place?

    Solutions

    Key Points

    • The 43rd World Medical & Health Games took place in Saint-Tropez, France.
    • This event is the largest sports event for health professionals globally.
    • The Games attract over 2500 participants from more than 50 different nations annually.
    • The 2024 edition saw four AFMS officers from India winning a record 32 medals.

    Important Points

    • Four Armed Forces Medical Service officers, Lt Col Sanjeev Malik, Maj Anish George, Capt Stephen Sebastian, and Capt Dania James, clinched 32 medals, including 19 Gold, at the 43rd World Medical and Health Games.

    Additional Information

    • The World Medical & Health Games are known as the Olympic Games for Health Professionals.
    • The Games have been held annually since 1978.
    • Paris: The capital city of France, known for its cultural and historical significance, but not the venue for the 43rd World Medical & Health Games.
    • London: The capital city of the United Kingdom, famous for its landmarks and events, but not the host for this specific event.
  • Question 4/10
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    With reference to medical science evolved in ancient India, consider the following statements:

    1. The earliest mention of medicines is to be found in the Charaka Samhita.

    2. Sushruta is regarded as the Father of Indian Surgery.

    3. Nagarjuna promoted the use of chemical treatments rather than herbal and vegetable mixtures.

    Which of the above statement is/are correct?

    Solutions

    Key Points

    • The earliest mention of medicines is to be found in the Atharva Veda. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
    • About 2000 years ago, there was a famous physician named Charaka who wrote a book on medicine known as the Charaka Samhita.
    • Charak Samhita and Ashtanga Samhita mainly deal with medicine knowledge while Sushruta Samhita deals mainly with surgical knowledge. 
    • In the Sushruta Samhita, Sushruta describes the method of operating cataract, stone disease, and several other ailments. He mentions as many as 121 implements to be used for surgery.
    • Sushruta is regarded as the "Father of Indian Surgery." Because of the surgical treatments he created, improved, and introduced to the world, he is often referred to as the "Father of Plastic Surgery."Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • Charaka Samhita is like an encyclopaedia of Indian medicine. It describes various types of fever, leprosy, hysteria (mirgi), and tuberculosis.
    • Charaka Samhita contains the names of a large number of plants and herbs that could be used as medicines. 
    • The book is thus useful not only for the study of Indian medicine but also for that of ancient Indian flora and chemistry.
    • Nagarjuna was believed to be an alchemist who worked extensively with mercury and promoted the use of chemical treatments rather than herbal and vegetable mixtures. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • Nagarjuna explained the circulatory system in detail and referred to blood as Rakta Dhatu
    • Several specifically formulated compounds with medicinal properties are known as Bhasmas
    • Vigraha Vyavar Vartika and Rasa Ratnakar are two key works in the realm of medicine and alchemy
  • Question 5/10
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    ​With reference to the mineral Manganese in India, Consider the following statements:

    1. It is mainly found in the Vindhyan geological rock system.

    2. Odisha is the state with the highest reserves in India.

    3. High content of phosphorous in Indian manganese makes it suitable for metallurgical purposes.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Solutions

    Key Points

    Mineral Manganese in India

    • Manganese is an important raw material for the smelting of iron ore and is also used for manufacturing ferroalloys.
    • Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly associated with the Dharwar system. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
    • Odisha has the largest reserves of Manganese, whereas Madhya Pradesh is the leading manganese ore producing State accounted for 27% of the total production in 2016-17 and 32% in 2017-18. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
    • State-wise, Odisha tops the total reserves/resources with 44% share followed by Karnataka 22%, Madhya Pradesh 12%, Maharashtra & Goa 7% each, Andhra Pradesh 4% and Jharkhand 2%, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Telangana, and West Bengal together shared the remaining about 2% resources.
    • Major mines in Odisha are located in the central part of the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi, and Bolangir.
    • Karnataka is another major producer and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurga, and Tumakuru. 
    • Maharashtra is also an important producer of manganese, which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara, and Ratnagiri districts.
    • The disadvantage to these mines is that they are located far from steel plants.
    • The manganese belt of Madhya Pradesh extends in a belt in Balaghat-Chhindwara-Nimar-Mandla and Jhabua districts.
    • Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of manganese.
    • About 90 to 95% of the world's production of manganese ore is used in the metallurgy of iron and steel.
    • A high amount of phosphorous makes the manganese ore unsuitable for its metallurgical use, whereas, high phosphorous and high iron content makes it unsuitable for the battery industry. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

  • Question 6/10
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    With reference to India, consider the following statements :

    1. When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires citizenship of another country his Indian citizenship automatically terminates.

    2. Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his or her Indian citizenship.

    3. The Indian citizenship is terminated when the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for more than five years continuously.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Solutions

    Key Points

    • The citizenship act of 1955 prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether required under the act or prior to it under the constitution: renunciation, termination and deprivation.
      • By Renunciation:- Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can make a declaration renouncing his Indian citizenship. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
        • Upon the registration of the declaration that person ceases to be a citizen of India however it's such a declaration is made during a war in which India is engaged, its registration shall be withheld by the central government.
        • Further, when a person renounces his Indian citizenship every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship.
          • However, when such as child attends the age of 18, he may resume Indian citizenship.
      • By Termination:- When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country his Indian citizenship automatically terminates this provision. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
        • However, does not apply during the war in which India is engaged.
      • By Deprivation:- It is compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the central government if:
        • that citizen has obtained citizenship by fraud.
        • the citizen has shown disloyalty to the constitution of India.
        • the citizen has unlawfully treated or communicated with the enemy during the war.
        • the citizen has within five years after registration on naturalisation been imprisoned in any country for two years
        • the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for 7 years continuously. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Question 7/10
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    Between which pair of countries does the 49° N parallel of latitude serve as the border?

    Solutions

    The correct answer is the USA and Canada.

    • The 49th parallel of north latitude forms part of the international boundary between Canada and the United States.

    List of some important International boundary lines are:

    • Radcliffe Line ‐ This boundary line is between India and Pakistan drew by Sir Cyril Radcliffe in 1947.
    • Durand Line - It is between Pakistan and Afghanistan. 
    • McMahon Line ‐ The boundary line between India and China to which China does not approve. It was demarcated by Sir Henry McMahon
    • Hindenberg Line ‐ Boundary line between Germany and Poland to which German retreated in 1917 during the First World War.
    • Oder‐Neisse Line ‐ The boundary line between Poland and East Germany.
    • Mannerheim Line - It is between Russia and Finland.
    • Maginot Line - The boundary line is between France and Germany. It was a defensive line at the French border towards Germany before World War II. 
    • Siegfried Line - The boundary line is between France and Germany. It was built as an extension of the Hindenburg defensive line on the western front of World War I by the Weimar Republic and later the Third Reich of Germany in the 1930s
    • 17th Parallel ‐ The line which defines the boundary between North Vietnam and South Vietnam before the two were united.
    • 20th Parallel - It is located 20th northern latitude is used as the border between Sudan and Libya.
    • 22nd Parallel - The 22nd latitude north of the equator marks a major portion of the Sudan-Egypt border.
    • 25th Parallel - The northernmost section of the Mali-Mauritania border is marked using this line.
    • 31st Parallel - The 31st northern latitude marks the border between Iraq and Iran. It also demarcates the border between the US states of Louisiana and Mississippi.
    • 38th Parallel ‐ The boundary line between North Korea and South Korea.  
    • 49th Parallel ‐ It is the boundary line between the United States of America and Canada.
  • Question 8/10
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    The major component of modern Olympic gold medals is ________.

    Solutions
    • The major component of modern Olympic gold medals is Silver.
    • For the Olympics, gold medals are awarded to the first place, silver to the second, and bronze to the third. 
    • But these medals are actually not made out of the mineral they are named after.
    • The gold and silver medals are both made of silver. 
    • The gold medals are then coated with gold. 
    • Composition of the Medals for Tokyo 2020 Olympics:-
      • Gold Medal: It consists of more than 6 grams of gold plating on pure silver. 
      • Silver: It is made of pure silver. 
      • Bronze: It comprises of red brass (95% copper and 5% zinc)

  • Question 9/10
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    Which of the following are true regarding the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

    1. The objective Resolution was proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru and passed by the Constituent Assembly which ultimately became the Preamble

    2. The idea of the Preamble was borrowed from the Constitution of the USA

    3. The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were adopted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976

    4. The Preamble incorporates the Fundamental Rights of the citizens of India

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    Solutions

    Key Points

    • The preamble of the Indian Constitution-
      • In a Constitution, it presents the intention of its framersthe history behind its creation, and the core values and principles of the nation.
      • In 1946, Objective Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru, describing the constitutional structure. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
      • In 1947 (22nd January) it was adopted, it shaped the Constitution of India and its modified version is reflected in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
      • The idea of the Preamble was borrowed from the Constitution of the USA. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
      • The objectives stated by the Preamble are to secure justice, liberty, equality to all citizens, and promote fraternity to maintain unity and integrity of the nation.
      • The term ‘Socialist’‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ were added to the preamble through 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
        • ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were added between ‘Sovereign’ and ‘Democratic’.
        • ‘Unity of the Nation’ was changed to ‘Unity and Integrity of the Nation’.
      • The Preamble does not incorporate the Fundamental Rights of the citizens of India. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • Question 10/10
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    Who among the following moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly?

    Solutions

    Key Points

    • During the making of the Indian Constitution, the objective resolution was presented by Jawaharlal Nehru.
      • “The Objectives Resolution, 1946” was introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru in the very first session of the Constitution Assembly.
      • Basically, these resolutions were the aspirations of the people who were making the Constitution.
      • It can be considered as the preamble of the vast dream, which the constitution-makers sought to achieve after the independence in the form of a new India. 
      • And these resolutions were framed as the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

    Additional Information

    • The drafting committee was set up on 29 August 1947 under the chairmanship of Dr. B R Ambedkar.
    • While deliberating upon the draft Constitution, the Assembly moved, discussed, and disposed of as many as 2,473 amendments out of a total of 7,635 tabled.
    • The constitution had got ready on 26th November 1949 and some provisions relating to Citizenship, Elections, provisional parliament, and temporary & transitional provisions were given immediate effect.
    • The Drafting Committee had seven members:
      • Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
      • N. Gopalaswami
      • B.R. Ambedkar
      • K.M Munshi
      • Mohammad Saadulla
      • B.L. Mitter
      • D.P. Khaitan
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