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SSC JE 2026 General Awareness Test - 6
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SSC JE 2026 General Awareness Test - 6
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  • Question 1/10
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    The gradual fragmentation of the Mughal Empire saw several provincial governors assert their autonomy, culminating in the de facto independence of regions like Awadh, Hyderabad, Bengal, and Punjab. This period of significant imperial decline, often marked by the invasion of Nadir Shah in 17391739, is primarily associated with the reign of which Mughal emperor?

    Solutions

    Mughal Empire Fragmentation and Emperor Muhammad Shah

    The question focuses on a critical period in the history of the Mughal Empire, specifically the time when its power began to significantly wane. This era was characterized by the loss of central control, leading to provincial governors becoming virtually independent. The text highlights the gradual fragmentation of the empire and the subsequent rise of autonomous regions like Awadh, Hyderabad, Bengal, and Punjab. A major event marking this decline was the invasion by Nadir Shah in the year 17391739. We need to identify the Mughal emperor under whom these events primarily took place.

    Analyzing the Decline of Mughal Authority

    The Mughal Empire, once a dominant force, faced numerous challenges in the 18th century. Several factors contributed to its weakening:

    • Internal conflicts and succession struggles weakened the central administration.
    • The rise of powerful regional governors (Nawabs) who started acting independently.
    • External invasions that drained resources and undermined imperial prestige.

    The period mentioned, marked by de facto independence of provinces and the invasion of Nadir Shah, signifies a phase of deep imperial decline.

    Identifying the Relevant Mughal Emperor

    Let's examine the reigns of the emperors mentioned in the options to determine who ruled during this specific period of decline:

    • Aurangzeb (reigned 1658-1707): While his long reign saw expansion, his policies also created strains that contributed to future instability. However, the major fragmentation and Nadir Shah's invasion happened significantly after his death.
    • Muhammad Shah (reigned 1719-1748): This emperor's reign is famously associated with the peak of Mughal decline. It was during his rule that the provincial governors like the Nizam-ul-Mulk in Hyderabad, Murshid Quli Khan in Bengal, and Saadat Khan in Awadh established virtual independence. Crucially, the devastating invasion by Persian ruler Nadir Shah occurred in 17391739, during Muhammad Shah's reign. This invasion shattered the remnants of Mughal power and is a defining event of his time.
    • Akbar II (reigned 1806-1837): By this time, the Mughal Empire was already in a state of severe decline and largely under the influence of the British East India Company. The events described in the question occurred much earlier.
    • Bahadur Shah I (reigned 1707-1712): Also known as Shah Alam I, he attempted to stabilize the empire after Aurangzeb's death but could not reverse the growing trend of regional autonomy. The significant fragmentation and Nadir Shah's invasion occurred decades after his reign.

    Conclusion on Imperial Fragmentation

    Based on historical accounts, the events of the gradual fragmentation of the Mughal Empire, the assertion of autonomy by provincial governors, and the pivotal invasion of Nadir Shah in 17391739 all fall within the reign of Muhammad Shah. His rule represents the period when the empire's decline became most pronounced and visible.

  • Question 2/10
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    Which type of natural vegetation is found in Steppe type climatic region?

    Solutions

    Steppe Climate Natural Vegetation Explained

    The question asks to identify the type of natural vegetation typically found in a Steppe type climatic region. Steppe climates are a specific type of semi-arid climate found in continental regions, often characterized by distinct seasons and moderate rainfall, but not enough to support extensive forests.

    Understanding Steppe Climates

    Steppe regions are transitional zones, often located between deserts and humid climates. Key characteristics include:

    • Semi-arid conditions with low to moderate rainfall.
    • Significant temperature variations between seasons (hot summers, cold winters).
    • Located in the interior of continents, far from oceanic influence.

    Dominant Natural Vegetation in Steppes

    Given the climatic conditions, the natural vegetation best suited for steppe regions is large grasslands. These are vast expanses dominated by grasses, herbs, and scattered shrubs. Examples include the prairies of North America and the steppes of Eurasia.

    The rainfall is generally sufficient to support grasses but insufficient to support large, continuous forests. The grasses are well-adapted to the climate, often having deep root systems to survive dry periods and fires, which are common in these environments.

    Evaluating Other Vegetation Options

    Let's look at why the other options are less suitable for typical steppe climates:

    • Coniferous forests: These are typically found in colder climates with higher rainfall, such as boreal regions or high mountains.
    • Deciduous forests: These require more consistent rainfall and moderate temperatures than typically found in steppe climates. They are characteristic of humid temperate regions.
    • Evergreen forests: These are usually found in regions with abundant rainfall year-round (like rainforests) or specific conditions like Mediterranean climates, neither of which defines the steppe climate.

    Conclusion on Steppe Vegetation

    Therefore, the most appropriate answer describing the natural vegetation found in a Steppe type climatic region is large grasslands.

  • Question 3/10
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    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

    Assertion (A): During the 18th and early 19th centuries, the British Parliament imposed substantial tariffs and import duties on Indian finished goods, particularly textiles, entering the British market.

    Reason (R): These protectionist measures were primarily designed to foster and shield Britain's emerging domestic manufacturing industries, which struggled to compete with the quality and cost-effectiveness of Indian products.

    Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    Solutions

    Analyzing Assertion (A): Tariffs on Indian Goods

    The first statement, Assertion (A), claims that during the 18th and early 19th centuries, the British Parliament imposed significant tariffs and import duties on Indian finished goods, especially textiles, when they were brought into the British market. Historically, this period was marked by the rise of British industrial power and changing trade dynamics. Indian textiles were renowned for their high quality and skilled craftsmanship, making them popular imports. However, as Britain's own textile industry began to grow, particularly with the advent of the Industrial Revolution, there was increasing pressure to limit the import of competing foreign goods. Historical records confirm that Britain did indeed implement policies, including substantial duties and tariffs, aimed at restricting the entry of Indian textiles into its domestic market. Therefore, Assertion (A) is considered true.

    Analyzing Reason (R): Protection of British Industries

    The second statement, Reason (R), suggests that these protectionist measures, like the tariffs mentioned in (A), were put in place mainly to foster and shield Britain's emerging domestic manufacturing industries. It highlights that these British industries were finding it difficult to compete with the superior quality and competitive cost-effectiveness of Indian products. This aligns perfectly with the economic context of the time. The British government sought to protect its own developing industries from the established and highly competitive Indian textile sector. By imposing high duties on Indian goods, the price of these imports increased, making domestically produced British textiles relatively cheaper and more attractive to consumers. This strategy was crucial for the growth and consolidation of Britain's own manufacturing base. Thus, Reason (R) is also considered true.

    Evaluating the Relationship Between Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

    Now, we need to determine if Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A). Assertion (A) states the imposition of tariffs on Indian goods. Reason (R) provides the motivation behind these tariffs – the protection of Britain's own industries. The heavy duties imposed on Indian textiles were a direct result of Britain's desire to safeguard its burgeoning manufacturing sector from the strong competition posed by Indian goods. The quality and cost-effectiveness of Indian products necessitated protective policies from the British side to allow their own industries to thrive. Therefore, Reason (R) serves as a direct and accurate explanation for the Assertion (A).

    Conclusion and Correct Answer Selection

    Based on the analysis:

    • Assertion (A) is true.
    • Reason (R) is true.
    • Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).

    The option that accurately reflects this is: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    Final Answer

    The correct answer is 3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  • Question 4/10
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    An easterly jetstream called the 'sub-tropical easterly jet stream' blows over peninsular India approximately over _______ during the summer months.

    Solutions

    Correct Answer: 14° north

    Solution:

    The sub-tropical easterly jet stream blows over peninsular India approximately over 14° north latitude during the summer months (June to September).

    Important points about it:

    • It is an easterly jet stream that develops during the summer monsoon season.
    • It blows at a height of about 12-14 km above the surface.
    • It flows from east to west over peninsular India at approximately 14°N latitude.
    • It plays an important role in the Indian monsoon mechanism.
    • It is associated with the upper air circulation over the Indian subcontinent during summer.
    • The establishment of this jet stream is linked to the onset of the southwest monsoon over India.

    Therefore, the correct answer is 14° north.

  • Question 5/10
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    The high-level committee, established in September 20232023 to explore the feasibility and propose a framework for 'One Nation, One Election' (simultaneous elections) in India, is chaired by which distinguished former dignitary?

    Solutions

    This solution focuses on identifying the chairperson of the high-level committee established to examine the concept of 'One Nation, One Election' in India.

    One Nation One Election Committee Formation

    In September 2023, a significant high-level committee was established by the Indian government. The primary purpose of this committee was to conduct a thorough examination of the feasibility and to propose a suitable framework for implementing the idea of 'One Nation, One Election'. This concept, also known as simultaneous elections, involves holding the general elections and state assembly elections at the same time.

    Chairperson of the High-Level Committee

    The committee tasked with this crucial study, formed in September 2023, is headed by a distinguished former dignitary. The chairperson leading the exploration into simultaneous elections is Ram Nath Kovind.

    Mr. Ram Nath Kovind previously served as the 14th President of India from 2017 to 2022, bringing extensive experience and a respected background to this important committee.

    Committee's Mandate and Objective

    The committee's core responsibilities include:

    • Assessing the legal and constitutional implications of holding simultaneous elections.
    • Examining the potential benefits, such as reduced costs and administrative efficiency.
    • Studying the challenges and logistical requirements for conducting elections nationwide at the same time.
    • Developing a comprehensive report outlining a feasible roadmap and framework for consideration.

    The objective is to determine if 'One Nation, One Election' is a viable and beneficial system for India's democratic process.

    Significance of Simultaneous Elections

    The idea of simultaneous elections aims to serve several purposes:

    • Cost Reduction: Holding elections together can potentially lower the overall expenditure associated with multiple election campaigns.
    • Policy Stability: It might prevent the 'code of conduct' restrictions from frequently disrupting development work.
    • Administrative Ease: Conducting elections simultaneously could streamline the deployment of resources and personnel.
    • Focus on Governance: It could allow governments, both at the center and in states, to focus more on policy implementation rather than constant electioneering.

    The committee, chaired by Ram Nath Kovind, is expected to provide valuable insights into these aspects following its detailed study initiated in September 2023.

  • Question 6/10
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    Under the Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana, what is the initial financial aid provided to each beneficiary?

    Solutions

    Why in the news?

    "Bihar Launches Mahila Rojgar Yojana: ₹10,000 Aid for Women Entrepreneurs”

    Under the Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana, each eligible woman receives ₹10,000 as initial financial aid to promote self-employment. The amount is transferred directly to the beneficiary’s bank account through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to ensure transparency and timely disbursal.

  • Question 7/10
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    Which of the following is a micronutrient?

    Solutions

    Minerals: The Essential Micronutrient

    The question asks us to identify which of the listed options is a micronutrient. Nutrients are essential substances required by the body for growth, metabolism, and overall health. They are broadly classified into two main categories based on the amount required: macronutrients and micronutrients.

    Understanding Macronutrients vs. Micronutrients

    To answer the question effectively, let's define both terms:

    • Macronutrients: These are nutrients that our bodies need in relatively large amounts. They provide calories (energy) and are the building blocks for growth and repair. The main macronutrients are carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
    • Micronutrients: These are nutrients that our bodies need in much smaller quantities. Although required in small amounts, they are crucial for a wide range of physiological functions, including energy production, immune function, and brain development. The primary micronutrients are vitamins and minerals.

    Here's a simple comparison:

    Category Required Amount Primary Examples Main Role
    Macronutrients Large amounts (grams) Carbohydrates, Fats, Proteins Energy, Growth, Repair
    Micronutrients Small amounts (milligrams or micrograms) Vitamins, Minerals Metabolic processes, Enzyme function, Health maintenance

    Analyzing the Options

    Now let's look at each option provided:

    • Minerals: Minerals like calcium, iron, zinc, and potassium are obtained from food and are essential for various bodily functions, such as bone health, nerve transmission, and fluid balance. They are needed in small quantities, making them micronutrients.
    • Carbohydrates: Carbohydrates are the body's primary source of energy. They are consumed in large amounts daily and are classified as macronutrients.
    • Fats: Fats are important for energy storage, hormone production, and nutrient absorption. Like carbohydrates, they are needed in significant quantities and are considered macronutrients.
    • Proteins: Proteins are vital for building and repairing tissues, making enzymes and hormones, and supporting the immune system. They are also required in large amounts and are classified as macronutrients.

    Conclusion

    Based on the definitions, Minerals are required by the body in small amounts and are essential for various functions, fitting the definition of a micronutrient. Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins are all macronutrients because they are needed in larger quantities for energy and structural purposes.

  • Question 8/10
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    Which of the following statements is correct with reference to Election Commission of India (ECI) ?

    Solutions

    Election Commission of India: Status and Responsibilities

    The question asks to identify the correct statement regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI). The ECI plays a crucial role in the democratic process of India.

    Understanding the Election Commission of India (ECI)

    The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an independent, statutory, and constitutional authority. Its primary function is to conduct and supervise free and fair elections to the Parliament of India (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), the state legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President of India. Being a constitutional authority means its existence and powers are derived directly from the Constitution of India (specifically, Part XV, Articles 324 to 329).

    The ECI is designed to be an autonomous body, meaning it operates independently of the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of government, ensuring impartiality in its functions.

    Analysis of the Options

    • Option 1: ECI is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for holding and supervising elections.

      This statement accurately describes the Election Commission of India. It is established under the Constitution and functions autonomously to manage the election process, ensuring fairness and transparency.

    • Option 2: ECI is an autonomous body under the ownership of Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India.

      While the ECI is autonomous, it is not owned by or under the Ministry of Law and Justice. It is a creation of the Constitution itself, independent of any ministry. The Ministry of Law and Justice handles legislative and legal affairs but does not oversee the ECI's functioning.

    • Option 3: ECI is a government body under the Home Ministry of India.

      This statement is incorrect. The ECI is not under the Home Ministry. The Home Ministry deals with internal security and administration, whereas the ECI's mandate is solely related to conducting elections.

    • Option 4: ECI is a private body recognised by the Government of India.

      This is factually wrong. The ECI is a public, constitutional body, not a private entity. Its constitutional status grants it significant authority and independence.

    Conclusion

    Based on the analysis, the most accurate description of the Election Commission of India is that it is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for holding and supervising elections.

  • Question 9/10
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    According to _____________ of the Constitution of India, a maximum of 20 members can be chosen to represent union territories in the House of the People.

    Solutions

    Understanding Lok Sabha Representation for Union Territories

    The House of the People, commonly known as the Lok Sabha, is the lower house of the Indian Parliament. It is composed of representatives elected directly from territorial constituencies across the states and, as specified by law, from the Union territories.

    Representation of Union Territories in Lok Sabha

    The representation of Union Territories (UTs) in the Lok Sabha is a specific aspect outlined in the Constitution of India. Unlike states, the manner and extent of representation for UTs are determined differently.

    Constitutional Basis: Article 81(b)

    The specific constitutional provision that deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha concerning Union territories is detailed in Article 81. More precisely, Article 81(b) addresses the representation from Union territories.

    According to Article 81(b) of the Constitution of India, the Lok Sabha shall consist of:

    • Not more than twenty members chosen directly from the Union territories.

    This clause explicitly allows for the inclusion of members representing Union territories, distinct from the members representing the states.

    Maximum Limit for Union Territory Members

    Article 81(b) stipulates that a maximum of 20 members can be elected to represent the Union territories in the House of the People. Parliament has the authority, under this article, to prescribe the method by which these representatives are chosen.

    Therefore, Article 81(b) is the correct constitutional provision that addresses the maximum number of representatives from Union territories in the Lok Sabha.

  • Question 10/10
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    As per the RBI guidelines, what is the minimum period of Inter Corporate Deposits (ICDs)?

    Solutions

    RBI ICD Minimum Period Explained

    Inter Corporate Deposits (ICDs) are essentially short-term loans or deposits exchanged between two corporate entities. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), being the central banking institution of India, lays down specific regulations and guidelines for such financial activities to maintain order and stability in the financial markets.

    Understanding Minimum ICD Duration

    One of the critical aspects regulated by the RBI concerning ICDs is the minimum duration or tenure allowed for these deposits. This regulation helps ensure that ICDs are used appropriately for managing temporary cash flow mismatches rather than for long-term financing, and it helps in structuring the market effectively.

    RBI Guidelines on ICD Tenure

    As per the prevailing guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India, the minimum period stipulated for Inter Corporate Deposits (ICDs) is 7 days. This means that any deposit made from one corporate body to another must be for a term of at least one week.

    This specific minimum period ensures a baseline commitment and helps in classifying these transactions appropriately within the corporate financial framework. Companies must adhere strictly to this minimum tenure requirement when engaging in ICDs.

    Key Aspects of ICDs under RBI Rules

    • Definition: ICDs are unsecured money placements between companies.
    • Regulator: Governed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines.
    • Minimum Period: The minimum duration for an ICD must be 7 days.
    • Compliance: Companies need to ensure all ICD transactions meet regulatory requirements, including the minimum period.

    Understanding and complying with the minimum period requirement for Inter Corporate Deposits is crucial for companies operating within India's regulatory framework.

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